Domain 4 BOC Review Questions & Answers with Rationale 2023

Domain 4 BOC Review Questions & Answers with Rationale 2023 c. 1. What does “extension lag” mean? a. Ability to only flex the knee b. Inability to fully backward bend (lumbar movement) c. One leg drags behind the other during gait d. Inability to fully extend the knee e. Inability to fully extend the hip 2. What is the best method of determining the recovery status of the hand and forearm after a flexor injury a. Use of a KT-1000 arthrometer b. Assessing the strength of a handshake c. Manual muscle testing of the wrist d. Use of a hand dynamometer e. Electromyography 3. Which of the following is the correct sequence of tissue healing? a. Cellular response, regeneration, remodeling b. Remodeling, regeneration, cellular response c. Rejection, regeneration, resolution d. Regeneration, resolution, remodeling e. None of the above 4. What amount of time may it take for complete remodeling of tissues to occur after a soft tissue injury? a. 1 to 3 months b. 6 to 9 months c. 4 to 6 weeks d. 12 to 24 months e. Up to 1 year 5. Where is the primary location for adenoside triphosphate production in skeletal muscle? a. Sarcomere b. Sarcoplasm c. Sarcolemma d. Sarcoplasmic reticulum e. Mitochondria 6. Sensory receptors located at the musculotendinous junction, which monitor active tension generated by the muscle during a contraction, are called: a. Pacinian corpuscle b. Ruffini receptors c. Golgi tendon organs d. Muscle spindles e. Contractile sensory receptors 7. Which of the following describes a neurapraxia? a. Demyelination of the axon sheath that leads to a conduction block. Usually heals in approximately 1 to 2 weeks b. Loss or disruption of the axon and myeline sheath. The epineurium is still intact c. An injury to the endoneurium, perineurium, and epineurium with a permanent neurological deficit d. A crush injury to a nerve causing damage to the epineurium. The perineurium is intact e. None of the above 8. Bone grows via a process of apposition and resorption on its surface. Which of the following cells are responsible for resorption of bone during its growth during its growth or repair? a. Osteoblasts b. Osteocytes Osteophils d. Osteoclasts e. None of the above “…osteoclast increase medullary cavity by breaking down bony tissue.” Pg. 258 Prentice, W. E., & Arnheim, D. (2017). Principles of athletic training: A competency-based approach. New York: McGraw-Hill Higher Education. 9. Why is the repair response so limited in the articular cartilage of a joint after an injury in the adult athlete? a. Articular cartilage cells do not undergo mitosis in the mature athlete b. Articular cartilage has a poor venous supply c. Articular cartilage has a low water content d. There are fewer mitochondria present in articular cartilage than in hyaline cartilage e. All of the above 10. What are the 4 sensations an athlete will experience with the application of cryotherapy? a. Cold, burning, cramping, numbness b. Pain, aching, stinging, cold c. Aching, burning, pain, numbness d. Cold, burning, aching, numbness e. Cold, burning, stinging, aching Table 15-3 pg. 403 Prentice, W. E., & Arnheim, D. (2017). Principles of athletic training: A competency-based approach. New York: McGraw-Hill Higher Education. 11. The effects of treating a subacute musculoskeletal injury with a warm whirlpool include all of the following except: a. Analgesia b. Stimulation of local circulation c. Decreased muscle spasm d. Increased deep tissue temperature e. Decreased joint stiffness Table 15-1 pg. 399 Prentice, W. E., & Arnheim, D. (2017). Principles of athletic training: A competency-based approach. New York: McGraw-Hill Higher Education. 12. Which cells are active after an injury to begin building collagen? a. Osteocytes b. Osteoblasts c. Granulocytes d. Osteoclasts e. Fibroblasts c. “…resident cells that can mature into fibroblasts and repopulate tissue…” pg. 60 Denegar, C. R., Saliba, E., & Saliba, S. F. (2016). Therapeutic modalities for musculoskeletal injuries. Champaign, IL: Human Kinetics. 13. Heat is dissipated in the body by all of the following except: a. Shivering b. Convection c. The lungs d. Sweat evaporation e. Vasodilation Pg. 159 Heat Stress Prentice, W. E., & Arnheim, D. (2017). Principles of athletic training: A competency-based approach. New York: McGraw-Hill Higher Education. 14. External muscular force available for useful work is the result of all the following factors except: a. The velocity of muscular shortening b. Whether the muscle is fast or slow twitch c. The angle of the pull of the muscle d. The length of the muscle e. C and D 15. Balance and coordination are critical for athletic performance. Feedback from the muscles as to what they are doing during a particular activity known as . The area of the brain that assists in controlling movement is the . a. Proprioception, brainstem b. Muscle perception, medulla c. Kinesthesia, cortex d. Proprioception, cerebellum e. Kinesthesia, cerebrum 16. What is a stretching exercise that consists of a “stretch and hold” position called? a. Static stretch b. PNF pattern c. Ballistic stretch d. Warm-up e. B and C “This technique involves passively stretching a given antagonist muscle by placing it in a maximal position of stretch and holding it there for an extended time” pg. 117 Prentice, W. E., & Arnheim, D. (2017). Principles of athletic training: A competency-based approach. New York: McGraw-Hill Higher Education. 17. If hyperventilation does not adequately increase the oxygen supply in the blood during aerobic exercise, what must occur to meet the gas exchange demands? a. Increased cardiac output b. Decreased cardiac output c. Supplemental iron pills must be provided d. The activity must be discontinued e. None of the above 18. An injured athlete is led through a therapeutic mental process in which he pictures himself being evaluated by the athletic trainer and assured the injury is not serious. He then pictures himself moving through rehabilitation, recovering nicely, and finally, returning to his sport fully healed. What is this therapeutic approach to the recovery process called? a. Regression b. Thought stopping c. Biofeedback d. Meditation e. Visualization 19. What must the athletic trainer establish with the athlete prior to and during the rehabilitation in order for the rehabilitation of an injured athlete to be successful? a. A good rapport b. A position of dominance A deadline by which the athlete must return to a full-time participation in his or her sport d. The understanding that the coach has the final decision in his or her rehabilitation sessions e. B and C 20. A basketball player who has sprained her ankle for the second time in 3 months reports to the athletic training facility for her third treatment session. The athletic trainer notices she is demanding and wants to know why the athletic trainer “did not did her ankle the right way the first time.” She becomes somewhat threatening, stating that she will find someone else to help her if she is not successfully helped this time. What would be the best response to an attention-seeking athlete? a. Give up and let her seek help elsewhere b. Work with the athlete as long as necessary to satisfy her need for attention c. Set specific but reasonable time limits with the athlete per treatment session so the athletic trainer is not overtaxed d. Encourage the athlete to take a more positive position on her rehabilitation and use humor to divert her attention away from the injury e. None of the above 21. If an athlete needs to lose weight for health reasons, how many calories must his or her daily diet be reduced by in order to lose 1 to 2 pounds per week? a. 250 to 500 calories/day b. 1000 to 2000 calories/week c. 1000 to 2000 calories/day d. 500 to 1000 calories/day e. None of the above “adding 500 to 1,000 calories dailty to the usual diet will provide the energy needs of gaining 1 to 2 pounds per week….” Pg. 152 Prentice, W. E., & Arnheim, D. (2017). Principles of athletic training: A competency-based approach. New York: McGraw-Hill Higher Education. 22. Which modality would be best utilized if the desired therapeutic effect decreased pain, edema, and inflammation? a. Moist heatpacks b. Ultrasound c. Diathermy c. d. Fluidotherapy e. Ice packs pg. 402-403 Physiological Effects of Cold Prentice, W. E., & Arnheim, D. (2017). Principles of athletic training: A competency-based approach. New York: McGraw-Hill Higher Education. 23. What are heat-producing currents in the body that are formed by a magnetic field that is externally applied in short-wave diathermy called? a. Induction currents b. Magnetic currents c. Eddy currents d. Alternating currents e. Interferential currents 24. High-voltage pulsed monophasic generators deliver current to deep tissues without damaging superficial tissues without damaging superficial tissues are used for pain modulation. What type of waveform is used with this type of stimulator? a. Asymmetrical biphasic spiked pulse b. Monophasic squared pules c. Symmetrical biphasic pulses d. Monophasic spike delivered in pairs e. None of the above 25. A moist heatpack causes all of the following effects except: a. Higher superficial tissue temperatures b. Increases in muscle tissue temperatures c. Sedation d. Reduction of muscle spasms e. vasodilation 26. What physiological effects occur under the cathode of an electrical stimulator? i. Vasodilation ii. Vasoconstriction iii. Tissue softening iv. Irritation a. I, III, IV b. II, III, IV c. I, II, III d. IV e. None of the above 27. All of the following are contraindications for using cryotherapy except: a. Raynaud’s phenomenon b. Inflammation c. Vasculitis d. Cold urticaria e. A and D Table 11.1 pg. 210 Denegar, C. R., Saliba, E., & Saliba, S. F. (2016). Therapeutic modalities for musculoskeletal injuries. Champaign, IL: Human Kinetics. 28. What would be a functional skill for a patient in an ankle rehabilitation program? a. Gastrocnemius flexibility b. Single-leg hopping c. Lifting tolerance d. Anterior tibialis strengthening e. All of the above 29. When rehabilitating a musculoskeletal injury, what is the proper progression of treatment? a. Range of motion, strength, endurance, proprioception b. Pain relief, agility, range of motion, strength c. Range of motion, pain relief, endurance, proprioception d. Proprioception, range of motion, strength, endurance e. Range of motion, endurance, strength, proprioception 30. Which of the following PNF techniques is not a strengthening technique? a. Slow reversal b. Rhythmic stabilization c. Slow-reversal-hold-relax d. Rhythmic initiation e. All of the above 31. During a lower extremity D1 flexion PNF pattern, what movements are taking place at the hip? a. Extension, abduction, internal rotation b. Flexion, abduction, internal rotation Extension, adduction, external rotation d. Flexion, adduction, external rotation e. Flexion, abduction, external rotation Table 6.9 pg 216 Therapeutic exercise: Foundations and techniques. (2017). Philadelphia: F.A. Davis Company. 32. During a D2 extension pattern of the upper extremity, what is the proper timing sequence? a. Shoulder extension, forearm pronation, finger flexion b. Shoulder flexion, scapular retraction, finger extension c. Should abduction, forearm supination, finger extension d. Shoulder extension, forearm supination, finger flexion e. None of the above Table 6.9 pg. 216 Therapeutic exercise: Foundations and techniques. (2017). Philadelphia: F.A. Davis Company. 33. According to Maitland’s 5 grades of joint motion, which grade would be most appropriate when joint movement is limited by pain and spasm? a. I b. II c. III d. IV e. V 34. A patient is seen by the athletic trainer 4 weeks post-operatively after should arthroscopy. Suring the athletic trainer’s assessment, it is found that the patient has limited abduction secondary to c. capsular stiffness. Which of the following joint glides would be appropriate to improve this motion? a. Inferior humeral glide b. Anterior humeral glide c. Posterior humeral glide d. Superior humeral glide e. All of the above/combined glides Figure 13.17 pg 352 35. Which of the following statements accurately describes isokinetic training? a. Generation of a muscular force with no visible joint movement b. Generation of a muscular force with visible joint movement that occurs at a constant speed but with variable external resistance c. Generation of a muscular force with visible joint movement at a variable speed but with a fixed external resistance d. Generation of a muscle force during muscular lengthening e. None of the above “Isokinetics uses a fixed speed with accommodation resistance to provide maximal resistance throughout the ROM.” Pg 15 36. Which of the following massage techniques is a method of tapotment? a. Cupping b. Hacking c. Pinching d. All of the above e. None of the above 37. When massage is utilized to induce a sedative effect, which type of massage technique is indicated? a. Tapotment b. Vibration c. Petrissage d. Danish e. Effleurage 38. What conditioning component is needed to perceive the position of the foot as it lands on the ground after the swing phase of gait? a. Agility b. Balance c. Proprioception d. Kinesthesia e. Eccentric …………………………………………………………………………… 39. Descending hills during running requires what type of muscular contraction by the quadriceps to decelerate the body? a. Positive b. Concentric c. Isokinetic d. Isometric e. Eccentric 40. What should a postseason conditioning program specifically focus on? a. Endurance activities b. Strengthening and flexibility exercises c. Sport-specific activities d. Identifying and improving the areas of conditioning in which the athlete is deficient e. All of the above 41. During the acute phase of an ankle injury, the water temperature of a whirlpool should be set at what temperature? a. 37 degrees C to 37.7 degrees C b. 55 degrees F to 65 degrees F c. 30 degrees F to 35 degrees F d. 70 degrees F to 80 degrees F e. 50 degrees C to 50 degrees C “…or in a 10 to 15 degree C (50-60 degree F) whirlpool..” pg. 212 modalities 42. Before returning an athlete to full activity, all of the following criteria should equal those taken from the uninvolved side at the end of the rehabilitation program except: a. Strength of each muscle group b. Girth measurements at 6 inches above and below the joint line c. Proprioception of both extremities d. Flexibility of the involved muscle groups e. C and D 43. Which of the following components of a rehabilitation programs is most often overlooked by the athletic trainer during rehabilitation? a. Endurance b. Flexibility c. Proprioception d. Functional testing prior to returning to the sport e. Strength 44. What type of exercises may be safely initiated immediately after knee surgery? a. Closed-chained eccentric exercises b. Isotonic exercises c. Isometric exercises d. Functional exercises e. None of the above “Isometric exercises are commonly performed in the early phase of rehabilitation when a joint is immobilized for a time.” Pg. 14 45. When rehabilitating a patient who has been diagnosed with “jumper’s knee,” which muscle group should eventually be strengthened? a. hamstrings b. Quadriceps c. Hip adductors d. Hip extensors e. Triceps surae “Strengthening of the quadriceps is critical during rehabilitation.” Pg. 697 46. When treating an athlete with trochanteric bursitis, flexibility should be increased in which of the following muscles? a. Glueteus maximus b. Tensor fasciae latae c. Iliacus d. Piriformis e. Lumbar 47. A tight Achilles tendon can cause (BLANK) or (BLANK) in order to allow the lower leg to move over the foot during running. a. A late lead off, early heel strike b. Early heel off, excessive supination c. Late heel off, late toe off d. Early heel off, excessive pronation e. Early heel off, early heal strike i. “Principles of Athletic Training, pg. pg. 506, Overload of specific structures results when excessive pronation is produced in the stance phase or when pronation is prolonged.” “A tight Achilles tendon can cause early heel off or excessive pronation in order to allow the leg to move over the foot.” 48. Which of the following is not a factor in designing an appropriate treatment program? a. The stage of tissue healing b. Pain with joint motion c. The severity of the injury d. How soon the coach feels the athlete should return to play e. A and B i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 433-434, “Criteria for Full Return to Activity includes; physiological healing constraints, pain status, swelling, range of motion, strength, neuromuscular control, proprioception, kinesthesia, cardiorespiratory endurance, sport specific demands, functional testing, etc…” 49. When rehabilitating a cervical strain, what must the athletic trainer maintain the integrity of? a. Shoulder girdle b. Lower back c. Upper arm d. Hand e. Kyphosis of the thoracic spine i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 779, “In a strain of the neck or upper back the patient has usually turned the head suddenly” “The muscles involved are typically the upper trapezius, the sternocleidomastoid, the scalenes and the splenius capitus.” “Range of motion and strength of the shoulder girdle is intimately related to the function of the cervical area.” 50. Which of the following sequences contains the appropriate steps in rehabilitating a grade II ankle sprain? a. RICE, stretching the Achilles tendon, isometric exercises, proprioceptive exercises, isotonic exercises b. RICE, isotonic exercises, hopping exercises, stretching the Achilles tendon, AROM exercises c. RICE, isotonic exercises, isokinetic exercises, AROM exercises d. RICE, treadmill ambulation, AROM exercises, figure 8 exercises, stretching of the Achilles tendon, foot intrinsic exercises e. None of the above i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 549, “Normally RICE is used for atleast 3 days.” “Isometric exercise is carried out following proprioceptive exercises and balance exercises.” 51. When is the best time to begin a rehabilitation program after an injury? a. Immediately b. After the injured part is healed c. After the inflammation is under control d. Once the pain subsides e. All of the above i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 432, “Phase 1; begins immediately after the injury occurs.” 52. When the following DAPRE technique is progressive resistive exercise, the first set of 10 repetitions is performed with a weight that is (BLANK) of the weight that will be lifted in a set of 3. a. 10% b. 25% c. 100% d. 75% e. 50% i. “The first set of 10 repetitions is with a weight that is 50% of the weight that will be lifted in set 3 when utilizing the DAPRE technique.” 53. When rehabilitating a patient with patellofemoral pain syndrome, which muscle groups should be strengthened? a. Quadriceps, hamstrings b. Hip abductors, hamstrings c. Hip adductors, quadriceps d. Hip flexors, hip external rotators e. Iliotibial band, hip external rotators i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 606, “The patient must engage in a program for strengthening the adductor muscles and for correcting the imbalance between the VMO and VL through the use of biofeedback techniques.” 54. Which of the following exercises are appropriate in attempting to decrease the symptoms of thoracic outlet syndrome? a. Cervical range of motion exercises, anterior shoulder strengthening b. Cervical range of motion exercises, cervical isometrics c. Anterior chest wall strengthening cervical isometrics d. Stretching the anterior chest wall, strengthening the posterior midthoracic area e. None of the above i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 681, “Exercises should be done to strengthen the trapezius, the rhomboids, the serratus anterior, and the erector muscles of the spine.” 55. What are the most appropriate exercises for a diagnosis of lumbar spinal stenosis? a. Kegel exercises b. McKenzie extension exercises c. Lumbar stabilization exercises d. Postural awareness exercises e. Williams flexion exercises i. ii. “Williams flexion exercises encourage a position of lumbar flexion, which opens the vertebral foramina, taking the pressure off the nerve root.” 56. Which of the following exercises does not address proprioception? a. Recumbent stationary bicycling b. Mini trampoline exercises c. Stork standing exercises with the eyes open d. Treadmill exercises e. All of the above i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 424, “The ability to sense the position of the joint in space is mediated by mechanoreceptors found in both muscles and joints.” “The patients body is in a stable static position while using a recumbent stationary bicycle and does not need to rely on proprioception to perform this activity.” 57. When rehabilitating a shoulder, in what area should strengthening exercises be initiated first? a. Rotator cuff musculature b. Cervical musculature c. Scapular musculature d. Shoulder abductors, flexors, and internal rotators e. A and D i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 687, “Athletic trainers should give particular attention to strengthening the scapular stabilizers by incorporating exercises.” 58. When rehabilitating a patient who has undergone an ACL reconstruction, which of the following muscle groups must be strengthened to support the graft? a. Triceps surae b. Hip adductors c. Quadriceps d. Gluteals e. Hamstrings i. “Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 597, “Patient should concentrate on hamstring strengthening and should use closed kinetic chain activities.” 59. Which of the following pieces of equipment is not considered closed kinetic chain? a. Treadmill b. Leg press machine c. Upper body ergometer d. Isokinetic knee extension machine e. BAPS board i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 434, “A closed kinetic chain, the foot or hand is weight bearing. Movements of the more proximal anatomical segments are affected by open and closed kinetic chain positions.” 60. When rehabilitating the lateral epicondylitis, which muscle group needs to be strengthened? a. Wrist flexors b. Wrist extensors c. Elbow flexors d. Elbow extensors e. Shoulder abductors i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 708, “The cause of lateral epicondylitis is repetitive microtrauma with overuse of the extensor muscles.” 61. When rehabilitating a patient with a recent herniated lumbar disc, which of the following exercises are most appropriate? a. Williams flexion exercises b. McKenzie extension exercises c. Lumbar stabilization exercises d. Posterior pelvic tilts and knee to chest exercises e. PNF stretching exercises i. ii. “McKenzie extension exercises are appropriate for treating a lumbar herniated disc as they encourage the mechanical movement of the disc anteriorly.” 62. A patient needs instruction on how to properly perform an abdominal sit up. What should the athletic trainer recommend? a. Place his hands behind his head, take a deep breath and hold it, pull his torso up toward his bent knees b. Cross his arms across his chest, tuck in his chin, bend his knees, inhale, and then exhale as he pulls his torso up toward his knees. c. Place his hands behind his head, bend his knees, exhale completely first, and inhale deeply as he pulls his torso up toward his knees d. Keeping his arms down by his sides, bend his knees, inhale deeply and hold it as he pulls his torso up toward his knees e. None of the above i. “When performing an abdominal crunch sit up, the patient should cross his arms across this chest, tuck in his chin, bend his knees, inhale, and then exhale as he pulls his torso up toward his knees.” 63. Knee braces can be classified as either functional, prophylactic, or rehabilitative. Which type of brace might be worn for 1-2 weeks after a grade II medial collateral ligament tear? a. Functional b. Prophylactic c. Rehabilitative d. Custom fit e. No brace is necessary for this injury i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 594, “The patient should be encouraged to use a hinged brace when he or she tries to return to running activities.” “FIGURE 20-41, B, “Postoperative / rehabilitative brace.” 64. In terms of specificity of training, which type of exercise would be appropriate during the late phases of rehabilitation of a soccer player? a. Stairmaster b. Swimming c. Stationary bicycle d. Leg press e. Treadmill exercise i. “Running on a treadmill would most closely relate to the type of activity a soccer player would participate in during his or her sport.” 65. Which of the following conditions is not indicated for mechanical traction? a. An acute interspinous sprain b. Degenerative joint disease c. Herniated discs or protrusions d. Degenerative disc disease e. Muscle spasm i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 409, “Traction is most commonly used for the treatment of spinal nerve root impingement, vertebral disk herniation and spondylolisthesis.” 66. Which of the muscle groups listed below are involved during a bench press? i. Anterior Deltoid ii. Rhomboids iii. Triceps iv. Pectoralis Major v. Latissimus dorsi vi. Upper trapezius b. I, II, III, IV, c. III, IV, V, VI d. I, III, IV, V e. II, III, IV, VI f. I, II, III, V i. “The anterior deltoid, triceps, pectoralis major, and latissimus dorsi are all active while performing a bench press.” 67. Which of the following muscle groups are involved during a full squat with weights? i. Quadriceps ii. Hamstrings iii. Erector Spinae iv. Middle Deltoid v. Gluteus maximus vi. Serratus anterior b. I, II, IV, V c. II, III, IV, V d. I, II, III, V e. II, III, V, VI f. All of the above i. “The quadriceps, hamstrings, the erector spinae, and gluteus maximus are all active when performing a full squat with weights.” 68. Which of the following muscles are involved in a seated military press? i. Trapezius ii. Latissimus dorsi iii. Pectoralis major iv. Serratus anterior v. Posterior deltoid vi. Triceps b. II, III, VI c. I, III, IV, V d. I, IV, V, VI e. I, III, IV, VI f. All of the above i. “The trapezius, pectoralis major, serratus anterior, and triceps musculature are all active when performing a seated military press.” 69. Which of the following describes a grade III joint mobilization technique? a. Small amplitude movement at the end range b. Large amplitude movement throughout the full available range of motion of the joint c. Small amplitude movement in the beginning of the range of motion d. Thrusting movement done at the anatomical limits of the joint e. None of the above i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 441, “Grade III – large amplitude glide up to the pathological limit in the range of motion. It is used when pain and resistance from spasm, inert tissue tension, or tissue compression limit movement near the end of the range.” 70. When rehabilitating a patient it is important that the area being rehabilitated is stressed with a variety of intensities and durations during condition. The body responds to these stresses by adapting to the specific demands imposed on it. What is the principle known as? a. SAID b. DAPRE c. RICE d. SITS e. None of the above i. Principle of Athletic Training, pg. 90, “SAID principles states that when the body is subjected to stresses and overloads of varying intensities, it will gradually adapt over time to overcome whatever demands are placed on it.” 71. Which of the following is not an example of an isotonic device? a. Free weights b. Total gym c. Squat rack d. Wall pulleys e. A wall i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 107, “Isotonic exercises shortens and lengthens the muscle through complete range of motion.” 72. When stretching during a warm up routine, which type of stretching should not be encouraged because it may lead to an injury? a. Ballistic b. Active c. Static d. Plyometric e. PNF i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 115, “Although apparently effective in improving range of motion has been criticized in the past because increased range of motion is achieved through a series of jerks or pulls on the resistant muscle tissue. The concern was that if the forces generated by jerks are greater than tissues extensibility muscle injury may result. 73. In which of the following sports would plyometric training be beneficial a. Rock climbing b. Cross country c. Volleyball d. Archery e. Swimming i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 110, “Plyometric exercises emphasize the speed of the eccentric phase.” “ Because plyometric exercises train specific movements in a biomechanically accurate manner, the muscles tendons, and ligaments are all strengthened in a functional manner.” 74. Which of the following exercises improves proprioceptive feedback when rehabilitating a lower extremity injury? a. Stationary bicycling b. Single leg standing on a mini trampoline c. Using a knee extension machine d. Bilateral calf raises e. All of the above i. Therapeutic Exercise, Chapter 5 Powerpoint, Slide 11, “Effects of joint motion – provides sensory input for proprioceptive feedback important for balance response.” 75. An athlete is recovering from a partial menisectomy, performed 5 days ago. All of the following actions would be appropriate at this time except; a. Achilles stretching b. Four quadrant straight leg raises c. Stationary bicycling with minimal / no resistance d. Eccentric quadriceps strengthening e. Hip flexor strengthening i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 600, “A repaired meniscus requires immobilization in a rehabilitative brace for 5-6 weeks. The patient should be on crutches, progressing from partial to full weight bearing at 6 weeks. During immobilization, the patient can perform active ROM exercises between 0 and 90 degrees.” 76. Which of the following exercises should be avoided in the early stages (phase 1) of ACL reconstruction rehabilitation? a. Full knee extension exercises b. Resisted hip abduction c. Toe raises d. Hamstring curls e. Isometric contraction of the quadriceps i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 597, According to our textbook “Establish and maintain full knee extension by the end of the first week” is wanted. 77. Two exercises that are designed to stabilize the lumbar spine during low back rehabilitation include (BLANK) and (BLANK) a. Single knee to chest exercises, double knee to chest b. Hamstring stretching, bridging exercises c. Partial sit ups, active trunk extension in prone d. Resisted hip abduction exercise, iliotibial band stretching e. Hamstring stretching, piriformis strengthening i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 787, “Strengthening exercises for abdominals and back extensors. The patient should be instructed in trunk stabilization exercises.” ”Partial sit ups assist in strengthening the abdominals, and trunk extension exercises.” 78. An athletic trainer working in a sports medicine clinic may have to read a SOAP note. In what section would a finding such as a positive Lachman’s test be recorded? a. Subjective b. Objective c. Assessment d. Plan e. Special Tests i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 361, “Objective findings result from the athletic trainer’s visual inspection, palpation, and assessment of active, passive, and resistive motion. Findings of special testing should also be noted here. 79. Bracing for scoliosis of the spine may be effective with all ages except; a. 5 year olds b. 10 year olds c. 18 year olds d. 14 year olds e. Bracing is not effective i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 259, “Epiphyseal growth site injuries can be sustained by children and adolescents performing sport activities.” “Bracing for structural scoliosis may be effective up to approximately age 18. After this age the epiphyseal plates close and external devices for correction do not work as well.” 80. Ultrasound is based on the (BLANK) effect a. Resonance b. Sounding c. Cavitation d. Phoresor e. Reverse Piezoelectric i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 404, “The piezoelectric effect causes expansion and contraction of crystals which produce oscillation voltage at the same frequency as the sound wave.” 81. What medium does not transmit ultrasound waves? a. Water b. Gel c. Body Lotion d. Steroid creams e. Air i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 406, “Because acoustic energy cannot travel through air and is reflected by skin, there must be a coupling medium applied to the skin.” 82. What kind of heating method does a warm whirlpool utilize? a. Conduction b. Convection c. Radiation d. Evaporation e. All of the above i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 391, “The whirlpool provides both convection and conduction. Conduction is achieved by the skins contact with the higher water temperature. As the water swirls around the skin, convection occurs.” 83. What is the term used in ultrasound to describe the time that sound waves are being emitted during one pulse period? a. Ultrasound frequency b. Cavitation c. Attenuation d. Duty Cycle e. Intensity i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 405, “The duty cycle is the percentage of time that ultrasound is being generated.” 84. A moist heat pack offers what type of thermotherapy? a. Superficial b. Deep c. Cutaneous d. Surface e. None of the above i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 391, “There are limitations of the hydrocollator pack in that the deeper tissues, including the musculature are usually NOT significantly heated because the heat transfer from the skin surface into deeper tissue is inhibited by the subcutaneous face.” 85. Conventional TENS uses frequency in the (BLANK) pulses per second range with a phase duration of (BLANK) seconds a. 50-100, 250 b. 50-100. 2-50 c. 2 -4, 150 d. 100, 20-30 e. 10, 50 i. Conventional TENS uses a frequency in the 50 to 100 pulses per second range with a phase duration of 2-50 seconds.” 86. What is one of the most serious adverse reactions during iontophoresis treatment? a. Galvanic burns b. Anaphylactic shock c. Dermatitis d. Histamine reaction e. None of the above i. “Galvanic burns are the most serious adverse reaction to iontophoresis and are caused by the galvanic currents itself.” 87. Paraffin bath therapy is commonly used in the hands and feet as a method of superficial heating. To keep the paraffin mixture in a molten state, the temperature should be maintained at; a. 100-115 b. 80-105 c. 126-130 d. 118-125 e. 140-150 i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 392, “The commercial paraffin bath is a thermostatically controlled unit that maintains a temperature of 126 degrees to 130 degrees Fahrenheit.” 88. The therapeutic conversion of electrical energy into high frequency sound energy above the audible range to create heat in the tissues is the definition of what modality? a. Diathermy b. Ultrasound c. Electric stimulation d. TENS e. Interferential i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 404, “Ultrasound is defined as inaudible, acoustic vibrations of high frequency that may produce either thermal or nonthermal physiological effects.” 89. Ultrasound waves are reflected by (BLANK) and absorbed by (BLANK) a. Bone, skin b. Skin connective tissue c. Skin, blood d. Bone, muscle e. Nerve, muscle i. “Ultrasound waves are reflected by bone and absorbed by muscle.” 90. Which of the following are contraindications to massage? i. Inflammation ii. Pregnancy iii. Hemorrhage iv. Infection v. Phlebitis b. I, II, III, IV, c. I, III, IV, V d. II, III, IV, e. II, III, IV, V f. All of the above i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 414, “Massage should not be given to acute injuries or over highly swollen tissues.” 91. Which of the following is not an indication for diathermy? a. To increase local circulation b. Reduction of spasms c. Pain relief d. Cardiac abnormalities e. Osteoarthritis i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 403, Chart 15-3 at the top, “In 2002, the FDA issued an advisory warning that shortwave diathermy in both heating and non heating modes can result in serious injury to an individual who has any type of implanted device or leads.” 92. Which of the following is not a contraindication or precaution for the use of ultrasound? a. Scarring b. Acute hemorrhage c. Anesthesia d. Treating over the endocrine gland e. Open wounds i. Principles of Athletic Training, pg. 407, “Ultrasound should not be applied to highly fluid areas of the body such as eyes, ears, testes, brain, spinal cord, and heart.” 93. Which physical law is applied with the use of an infrared lamp? a. Joules law b. Inverse square law c. Wolffs law d. Ohm’s law e. Newton’s law i. “The inverse square law states that the intensity radiation from a light source varies inversely to the square of the distance from the source.” 94. and are 2 means that deliver medication via sound waves and electricity. a. Ultrasound, iontophoresis b. Ultrasound, phonophoresis c. Micromessage, phonophoresis d. Phonophoresis, iontophoresis e. High-volt electric stimulation, iontophoresis ● “Iontophoresis is the process in which ions in solution are transferred through the intact skin via an electrical potential” (Denegar, Saliba & Saliba, 2016, p. 156). ● “Phonophoresis iuses sound energy, as opposed to electromagnetic energy, to drive the medication; thus, the medications driven into the tissues do not have an electrical charge in solution” (Denegar, Saliba & Saliba, 2016, p. 234). 95. What is the primary indication for cervical traction? a. Muscle spasm b. Hemorrhage c. Muscle weakness d. Vertigo e. None of the above ● All of the following are indications for the use of cervical traction. “Pain; muscle spasms; hypomobility; disc herniation” (Denegar, Saliba & Saliba, 2016, p. 312) Table 18.1. 96. The athletic trainer of a collegiate women’s swimming and diving team suspects one of his patients might have a severe eating disorder. After lengthy discussion with both the coach and patient, the athletic trainer decides it would be best for the patient if she is referred for professional help. To which of the following professionals should the patient be initially referred? a. An endocrinologist b. A chiropractor c. A registered dietitian d. A registered nurse e. A psychologist ● “Disordered eating is a multifactorial disorder that includes social, familial, physiological, and psychological components. … Athletes with disordered eating should be referred to a mental health practitioner for evaluation, diagnosis, and recommendations for treatment” (Prentice, 2017, p. 152). 97. One of your male patients notices a tingling sensation in his urethra followed by a discharge of greenishyellow pus from his penis. He is also complaining of pain during urination. You suspect which sexually transmitted diseases and recommend which of the following actions? a. Syphilis; have the patient take Zovirax for 7 to 10 days b. Trichomoniasis; have the patient drink acidic fluids, call his family physician, and have him refrain from all sexual activity c. Genital candidiasis; have the patient apply a fungicide to his penis d. Gonorrhea; refer the patient to a physician and have him refrain from all sexual activity e. Genital herpes; have the patient take Diflucan ● “In men, the incubation period is 2 to 10 days. The onset of the disease is marked by tingling sensation in the urethra, following in 2 or 3 hours by a greenish-yellow discharge of pus and painful urination” (Prentice, 2017, p. 940). 98. During the rehabilitation of a knee injury, the athletic trainer decides the use of neuromuscular stimulation is indicated. As the athletic trainer is applying the electrodes to the patient’s thigh, the patients says he has never had electric stimulation and is scared of electricity. Which of the following would be an appropriate response by the athletic trainer? a. Tell him he is being childish b. Demonstrate how it works c. Teach him about the general principles of electrical stimulation d. Tell a joke about electricity to relax him e. Do not use an electrotherapeutic modality on the patient ● “Electrical stimulation has many uses ranging from pain modulation to assessing muscle contraction” (Denegar, Saliba & Saliba, 2016, p. 126). “When a clinician applies electrotherapy, the body becomes part of an electrical circuit as the current travels from one electrode to the other (figure 7.1)” (Denegar, Saliba & Saliba, 2016, p. 127). e. 99. A cross-country runner comes to you because he would like to begin a strength-training program for general body development. He informs you that he “has never really lifted weights before.” how would you instruct him regarding his breathing pattern during a lift? a. Have the athlete inhale deeply at the beginning of the lift and then forcefully exhale at the end of the lift b. Have the athlete hold his breath during the lift c. Have the athlete inhale during the lift and hold his breath at the end of the lift d. Have the athlete breathe in, blow out and breathe in again at the end of the lift e. Breathe normally ● “Breathe out as you lift the weight. Begin breathing out right as you pick up the weight. For example, on a bench press you fully exhale through your nose or mouth as you push the barbell away from your chest” (Yemi, L). “While it may be tempting to hold your breath during exercise, the most effective way to breathe during resistance training is to inhale as you lower the weight and exhale as you lift the weight” (Richey, L) 100. What should the athletic trainer do when teaching a patient how to properly use crutches? a. Make sure the patient’s weight is fully supported on his or her hands and armpits b. Caution the patient not to lean on the crutches so that his or her weight is on the crutches axillary pads c. Teach him or her how to use a cane first d. Teach the patient a 4-point gait e. Teach the patient a 5-point gait ● “Placing the crutch tips 12 to 15 inches (30 to 37.5 cm) ahead of the feet, the patient leans forward, straightens the elbow, pulls the upper crosspiece firmly against the side of the chest, and swings or steps with the uninjured leg between the stationary crutches (Figure 12-46A). The patient should avoid placing the major support in the axilla” (Prentice, 2017, p. 340). 101. You suspect one of your soccer players is experiencing “training staleness.” Which of the following should you assess when developing a counseling approach with the patient? a. The level of the patient’s ability to play the sport b. The relationship between the patient and his family c. The patient’s training schedule and diet d. The patient’s competition schedule e. The relationship between the patient and coach ● “Overtraining can have a negative effect on the development if muscular strength. Overtraining can result in psychological breakdown (staleness) or physiological breakdown, which may involve musculoskeletal injury, fatigue, or sickness. Engaging in proper and efficient resistance training, eating ● e. a proper diet, and getting appropriate rest can minimize the potential negative effects of overtraining” (Prentice, 2017, p. 101). 102. When rehabilitating an athlete following a ligamentous wrist injury, once the ligament has healed enough where active motion can be initiated, it is important to educate the athlete to exercise only: a. Isometrically b. In water c. While using a prophylactic brace d. First thing in the morning In a pain-free range When working with any rehabilitation of any injury, you want the patient to go as far as they can without any pain. That being with the wrist you want them to be doing extensor and flexor exercises within the limits that are given. (Prentice, 2017, p. 748). 103. One of your patients has been diagnosed with Sinding-Larsen-Johansson Disease. Which of the following is not appropriate when advising the patient in regards in regard to minimizing his symptoms? a. To increase the strength of the vastus medialis obliquus muscle with isotonic quadriceps strengthening exercises b. Use ice packs frequently to minimize pain and swelling c. Avoid stressful activities, such as running, for approximately 6 months d. Avoid deep squatting e. All of the above ● This syndrome has connections with patellofemoral dysfunction, in which the Vastus Medialis Oblique should be strengthened. “... Sinding-Larsen Johansson syndrome (traction apophysitis on the inferior pole of the patella) occur during adolescence as a result of overuse during rapid growth” (Kisner, Colby & Borstad, 2018, p. 793) 104. When counseling a patient about the proper way to self-administer a medication, it is important that the athletic trainer make the patient aware of what 2 factors? a. Any side effects and, in detail, how long the drug works on the body b. If the drug may be addictive and how long the effects will last c. If the drug may cause depression and, in detail, how the drug works on the body d. When to take the medication and what foods/drugs not to mix with it e. B and C ● “To be effective therapeutically, a drug must first enter the system and then reach a receptor in a target tissue” (Prentice, 2017, 464). The way drugs are used, absorbed, types, and what to eat with and when to take is in chapter 17 of the Prentice book starting on page 463. 105. An athlete experiences a catastrophic injury in which she is permanently unable to return to playing the only sport with which she is familiar. What would be the athletic trainer’s appropriate response when discussing the injury with the athlete? a. Tell her it is not appropriate to deny her condition and that it is best to accept her limitations ● e. b. Tell her it is OK for her to feel a variety of emotions and to openly express her needs and concerns c. Tell her to speak to her coach about her future in athletics d. Tell her to seek psychological counseling until she is no longer angry about her injury e. Tell her it happens all of the time and eventually she will get used to her situation ● “Musculoskeletal injuries generally produce negative emotions. Tension, anger, depression, frustration, and boredom are common. … Emotional responses to injury are influenced by various components of self-perception: self-worth, self-confidence, and self-efficacy” (Denegar, Saliba & Saliba, 2016, p. 25). 106. When advising a patient about his year-long strength training program, the athletic trainer should have the patient limit his heavy lifting workouts to which periods? a. In-season and postseason b. Preseason and in-season c. Postseason and off-season d. Off-season and preseason None of the above “The preparatory period occurs primarily during the off-season, when there is no upcoming events.” During the last phase of the three phases of this period, you are at high intensity with low reps. (Prentice, 2017, p. 123). 107. A swimmer reports to the athletic training facility complaining of symptoms related to Scheuermann’s disease. Which type of exercises are beneficial in trying to diminish the symptoms during the early stages of the disease? a. Cervical range of motion exercises b. Extension and postural exercises c. Williams’ flexion exercises d. Hughston exercises e. Deep breathing exercises ● “Scheuermann’s disease is a rare congenital and/or degenerative weakening of the vertebral endplates. … Intervention should be related to presenting signs with the caution to minimize compressive forces on the vertebrae” (Kisner, Colby & Borstad, 2018, p. 451). Interventions for Scheuermann’s disease is posture education and stretching the tight muscles (Kisner, Colby & Borstad, 2018, p. 474). 108. When rehabilitating an athlete following a lumbar strain, the athletic trainer should emphasize the significance of having the athlete improve the flexibility of all of the following structures except: a. The abdominals b. The iliopsoas c. The paraspinals d. The hamstrings ● e. e. The hip extensors ● “Corsets provide passive support of the lumbar region and may be used following serious injury or postsurgical. … during healing, it is better to strengthen the body’s natural corset (deep abdominal muscles) and develop effective spinal mechanisms (see Chapter 16) than to have the patient rely on passive support” (Kisner, Colby & Borstad, 2018, p. 472). 109. One of your basketball players often complains about localized lumbar “backaches.” After performing your evaluation on this patient, it appears his primary problem is postural. All of the following are actions that the patient can take to prevent low back pain except: a. When standing for long periods of time, rest one foot on a stool if it is available b. Avoid sleeping in side-lying position with the knee slightly bent c. Carry objects at waist level when possible d. Sit on chairs with a firm seat and straight back e. Keep his abdominals strong ● When you are dealing with an individual with a postural problem, you should assess them in the lumbar but as well as the hamstrings. “The patient should be observed in standing, sitting, supine, side-lying, and prone positions and special tests should be done …” (Prentice, 2017, p. 781). 110. Which of the following individuals should the athletic trainer advise and consult with when developing a reconditioning program for a patient following a musculoskeletal injury while playing football? a. The team physician b. The school nurse c. The head football coach d. The patient’s parents if he is a minor The Team strength and conditioning coach ● d. e. “The specific role of the athletic trainer is to critically review the training and conditioning program designed by the strength and conditioning coach to be extremely familiar with what is expected of the athletes on a daily basis. The athletic trainer should feel free to offer suggestions and make recommendations that are in the best interest of the athletes’ health and well-being” (Prentice, 2017, p. 91) 111. and are important qualities that an athletic trainer must possess when counseling a patient during a time of distress a. Honesty, respect b. Sympathy, pity c. Confidence, logic d. Objectivity, decisiveness e. Logic, detachment ● “Athletes are often caught in the middle between coaches telling them to do one thing and medical staff telling them to do something else” (Prentice, 2017, p. 27). Having the athletes trust in what you know and do is a major key in getting an athlete to continue to come in for treatment. 112. If the patient complains of a burning sensation during an ultrasound treatment, all of the following may be the source of the problem except: a. The intensity is too high b. Not enough ultrasound medium is being used c. Too much ultrasound gel is being used d. The movement of the transducer head is too slow e. B and D ● “If pain is experienced, the amplitude of the ultrasound may be set too high or, more likely, the beam characteristics of the crystal in the device have created areas of high peak energy. To some degree this can be overcome with continued movement of the ultrasound head. It is important to recognize that the ultrasound head and gel used during treatment can be a source of contamination” (Denegar, Saliba & Saliba, 2016, p. 245) 113. Pain occurring at a site distant to damaged tissue that does not follow the course of a peripheral nerve describes what type of pain? a. Muscular b. Referred c. Radicular d. Visceral e. Presymptomatic ● “Referred pain occurs when there is pain in an area separate from the pathology. Referred pain can be mysterious, but it has predictable patterns. Pain in the left shoulder and jaw during a heart attack and left shoulder pain with a spleen injury are two examples of referred pain” Denegar, Saliba & Saliba, 2016, p. 100). Table 6.1 on page 100 of the modalities book has patterns of referred pain for common injuries. 114. Which of the following is not a contraindication to the use of diathermy? a. Acute inflammation and joint effusion ● d. e. b. Muscle spasm c. Pregnancy Open wounds C and D All of the following are contraindications for diathermy: application over cardiac pacemaker, eyes, genitalia, joint replacements, and metal implants; pregnancy; open wounds; cancer; infection; deep vein thrombosis; acute inflammation and joint effusion; diminished or absent sensation. All of the following are indications for diathermy: heat large area of deeper tissue; increase blood flow in deep tissue; decrease pain and muscle spasm. (Denegar, Saliba & Saliba, 2016, p. 243). 115. What occurs during a joint mobilization technique when a convex surface moves on a concave surface? a. Roll and glide occur in opposite directions b. Glide and spin occur in opposite directions c. A shearing force occurs at the joint surface d. Roll and glide occur in the same direction e. Straight glide in same direction ● “During most joint movements, the articulating surfaces slide and glide upon one another while the rolling or pivoting occurs about a moving axis. The subtle slides and glides are referred to as arthrokinematics, whereas the observed motion created by movement of one bone upon another is referred to as osteokinematics” (Denegar, Saliba & Saliba, 2016, p. 309). “(a) When a convex surface moves on a convex surface, roll and glide are in opposite directions. (b) When a concave surface moves on a convex surface, roll and glide occur in the same direction”(Denegar, Saliba & Saliba, 2016, p. 310). See Figure 18.4 on pg. 310. 116. Contraindications to cervical traction include all of the following except: a. A positive vertebral artery test b. A positive alar ligament test c. Disc herniation d. Increased radicular symptoms with treatment e. Nystagmus ● Contraindications for Cervical traction include all of the following. “Positive vertebral artery test; positive alar ligament test; acute neck injury (fractures, sprains with joint instability); advanced rheumatoid arthritis; bone cancer; increased pain or radicular symptoms with treatment; advanced osteoporosis” (Denegar, Saliba & Saliba, 2016, p. 312) Table 18.1. 117. Which of the following is a manual technique in which an injured patient’s muscles are actively contracted against a counterforce in a specific position? a. Myofascial release b. Muscle energy techniques c. Joint mobilization d. Strain-counterstrain e. Multi-angle isokinetics ● “Muscle energy techniques are manual procedure in which the injured person’s muscles are actively contracted against a counterforce in a specific treatment position. These techniques may be used, for ● d. e. example, in the treatment of sacroiliac (figure 18.5) and lumbar facet dysfunction” (Denegar, Saliba & Saliba, 2016, p. 310). 118. Delayed-onset muscle soreness normally occurs how long after a strenuous exercise session? a. 1 hour after exercise b. 12 hours after exercise c. 24 to 72 hours after exercise 4 to 6 hours after exercise Immediately after exercise “With vigorous and unaccustomed resistance training or any form of muscular overexertion, DOMS, which is noticeable in the muscle belly or at the myotendinous junction… Muscle soreness and aching beginning 12 to 24 hours after exercise, peaking at 48 to 72 hours, and subsiding 2 to 3 days later” (Kisner, Colby & Borstad, 2018, p. 204-205). 119. Physiological adaptations of the respiratory system during aerobic endurance training include all of the following except: a. Reduced submaximal heart rate b. Enhanced oxygen exchange within the lungs c. Decrease submaximal pulmonary ventilation d. Improved circulation throughout the lungs e. B and D ● Aerobic exercises are exercises with air. “The reduction in “feedback” from chemoreceptors in the trained muscle and a decreased need to recruit motor units to accomplish an exercise task results in reduced sympathetic nervous system, heart rate, and ventilation responses in submaximal exercise” (Parr, 2012, Slide 55) 120. Which of the following muscles are involved in a seated row exercise? I. Latissimus dorsi II. Teres minor III. Teres major IV. Middle trapezius V. Rhomboids VI. Pectoralis major a. I, III, IV 5 b. II, III, IV 5 c. I, III, IV, V 14 d. II, III, IV, 19 e. I, II, III, IV ● Actions of the rhomboids with the shoulder girdle are adduction, downward rotation, and elevation. The actions of the Middle Trapezius of the shoulder girdle are elevation, adduction, and upward rotation. (Floyd, 2015, p. 96). The actions of the latissimus dorsi of the glenohumeral joint are extension, adduction, IR, and horizontal abduction. The actions of the teres major of the glenohumeral joint are extension, adduction, and IR. (Floyd, 2015, p. 119) ● d. e. 121. Which of the following muscles are the primary muscles involved when performing a resisted wrist curl (palms up)? I. Flexor digitorum longus II. Flexor digiti minimi III. Adductor pollicis IV. Flexor carpi radialis V. Flexor carpi ulnaris VI. Brachialis a. I, II, IV b. I, IV, V, VI c. II, III, IV, VI IV, V III, IV, V ● The following are the actions of the Flexor Carpi Radialis and Flexor Carpi Ulnaris. Flexor Carpi Radialis actions are flexion of the wrist, abduction of the wrist, weak flexion of the elbow and weak pronation of the elbow. Flexor Carpi Ulnaris actions are flexion of the wrist, adduction of the wrist and weak flexion of the elbow. (Floyd, 2015, p. 176). 122. Which of the following structures is responsible for relaying information regarding muscle dynamics to the conscious and subconscious parts of the central nervous system? a. Muscle spindle b. Proprioceptors c. Golgi tendon organs d. Type III muscle fibers e. Brain stem ● “The peripheral sensory receptors, however, provide the central nervous system with information about pain, touch, vibration, temperature, and proprioception. … The functions of proprioceptors is “Changes in muscle length and muscle spindle tension; change in joint position; vibration; joint end range, possible heat” (Denegar, Saliba & Saliba, 2016, p. 78). 123. Which of the following is the most effective motivator for compliance to rehabilitation of an athletic injury? a. Coercion b. Bribery c. Fear d. Collaboration e. Goal setting ● “Developing a plan of care involves collaboration and negotiation between the patient (and, when appropriate, the family) and the therapist. The anticipated goals and expected outcomes documented in the plan of care must be patient centered--that is, the goals and outcomes must be meaningful to the patient” (Kisner, Colby & Borstad, 2018, p. 22). 124. Which of the following types of exercise can produce a spike in systolic blood pressure that can result in a potentially life-threatening cardiovascular accident? a. Isometric b. Plyometric c. Isotonic d. Eccentric e. Isokinetic ● “Precaution: Patients will often hold their breath during isometric exercise, particularly when performed against substantial external resistance. This is likely to cause a pressor response as the result of the Valsalva maneuver, causing a rapid increase in blood pressure. … Contraindication: Highintensity isometric exercises are contraindicated for patients with a history of cardiac or vascular disorders” (Kisner, Colby & Borstad, 2018, p. 189). 125. Which of the following is an example of muscle spindle activity? a. Nystagmus b. Babinski’s reflex c. Knee-jerk reflex d. Moro’s reflex e. None of the above “Knee jerk, or patellar tendon reflex. A sudden tao on the patellar tendon causes a quick stretch of the quadriceps, which activates the muscle spindle” (Floyd, 2015, p. 54) 126. When the length of a muscle prevents full range of motion at the joint or joints over which the muscle crosses, it is known as what? a. Adhesive capsulitis b. Passive insufficiency c. Hypomobility d. Muscle contracture e. None of the above ● “When it is fully lengthened and limits motion at one of the joints it crosses, it is known as passive insufficiency. This occurs in the hamstring muscle when the knee is extended and full range of hip hip flexion is limited (or conversely, when the hip is flexed full range and knee extension is limited” (Kisner, Colby & Borstad, 2018, p. 61). 127. All of the following principles must be considered before the athletic trainer begins an activity designed to improve balance except: a. Multiple planes of motion must be stressed b. The activities must progress to sport-specific activities c. The activity should incorporate a unisensory approach d. The exercises must be safe but challenging e. A and B ● “The focus of attention is important when improving balance performance through training” (Kisner, Colby & Borstad, 2018, p. 277). When looking at balance you have to take into consideration of the static control and dynamic. When these are put into play they focus on both the external and internal factors of balance. (Kisner, Colby & Borstad, 2018, p. 277-278) 128. Which of the following positions must be avoided when rehabilitating an athlete who has a posterior instability of the glenohumeral joint? a. Abduction with external rotation b. Full forward flexion c. Internal rotation with horizontal adduction and flexion d. Internal rotation with shoulder extension e. A and B ● When looking at posterior instability of the glenohumeral joint, when the shoulder is put into internal rotation with horizontal adduction and flexion, this would cause the bones and muscles to give and have that instability. When looking at the anterior aspect of glenohumeral instability, external rotation would cause instability. (Starkey & Brown, 2015, p. 643). 129. When developing a functional progression for an athlete who is undergoing a rehabilitation program, all of the following factors need to be considered except: a. The physicians expectations for the athlete’s return to activity b. The athlete’s expectations for his or her return to activity c. The severity of the athlete’s disability ● d. The length of the rehabilitation program e. The athlete’s position in the sport ● The athlete should have an insight of what the goals are for their rehab. They should be informed of what their injury is and the severity of the injury. The clinician should also take into consideration of what the sport and position the athlete is. The athlete should also be informed of the risks for each exercise and modality that is to be used on them. (Kisner, Colby & Borstad, 2018, p. 22-23). 130. Upper extremity closed kinetic chain exercises are used primarily for strengthening and improving proprioception of which of the following structure? a. Muscles that stabilize the shoulder girdle b. Ligaments that stabilize the glenohumeral joint c. Tendons that support the joints of the cervical spine, shoulder, and elbow d. The articular surfaces of the glenohume