Ham Radio - Extra Class - Question Pool Answered 100% Correct

E0A01 What, if any, are the differences between the radiation produced by radioactive materials and the electromagnetic energy radiated by an antenna? A. There is no significant difference between the two types of radiation B. Only radiation produced by radioactivity can injure human beings C. RF radiation does not have sufficient energy to break apart atoms and molecules; radiation from radioactive sources does D. Radiation from an antenna will damage unexposed photographic film, ordinary radioactive materials do not cause this problem - ANSWER-(C) E0A02 When evaluating exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do? A. Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits B. Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits C. Nothing; you need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property D. Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests - ANSWER-(B) E0A03 Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits? A. Use a calibrated antenna analyzer B. Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields C. Walk around under the antennas with a neon-lamp probe to find the strongest fields D. Use a computer-based antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at accessible locations - ANSWER-(D) E0A04 When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations? A. Only the most powerful transmitter B. Only commercial transmitters C. Each transmitter that produces 5% or more of its maximum permissible exposure limit at accessible locations D. Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50% - ANSWER-(C) E0A05 What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands? A. Microwaves are ionizing radiation B. The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels C. Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection D. The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures - ANSWER-(B) E0A06 Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits? A. The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields B. Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location C. E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations D. All of these answers are correct - ANSWER-(D) E0A07 What is the "far-field" zone of an antenna? A. The area of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted B. The area where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period C. The area where radiated field strengths are obstructed by objects of reflection D. The area where the shape of the antenna pattern is independent of distance - ANSWER-(D) E0A08 What does SAR measure? A. Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body B. Signal Amplification Rating C. The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body D. The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain - ANSWER-(C) E0A09 Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled? A. Mica B. Zinc oxide C. Beryllium Oxide D. Uranium Hexaflouride - ANSWER-(C) E0A10 What material found in some electronic components such as high-voltage capacitors and transformers is considered toxic? A. Polychlorinated biphenyls B. Polyethylene C. Polytetrafluroethylene D. Polymorphic silicon - ANSWER-(A) E0A11 Which of these items might be a significant hazard when operating a klystron or cavity magnetron transmitter? A. Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge B. Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field C. Injury from radiation leaks that exceed the MPE limits D. Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system - ANSWER-(C) E1A01 When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies will result in a normal USB emission being within the band? A. The exact upper band edge B. 300 Hz below the upper band edge C. 1 kHz below the upper band edge D. 3 kHz below the upper band edge - ANSWER-(D) E1A02 When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies will result in a normal LSB emission being within the band? A. The exact lower band edge B. 300 Hz above the lower band edge C. 1 kHz above the lower band edge D. 3 kHz above the lower band edge - ANSWER-(D) E1A03 With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 14.349 MHz US. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency? A. Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band C. No, my sidebands will extend beyond the band edge D. No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz - ANSWER-(C) E1A04 With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.601 MHz LS. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency? A. Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment C. No, my sidebands will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment D. No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz - ANSWER-(C) E1A05 Which is the only amateur band that does not permit the transmission of phone or image emissions? A. 160 meters B. 60 meters C. 30 meters D. 17 meters - ANSWER-(C) E1A06 What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band? A. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator B. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole C. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator D. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole - ANSWER-(B) E1A07 What is the only amateur band where transmission on specific channels rather than a range of frequencies is permitted? A. 12 meter band B. 17 meter band C. 30 meter band D. 60 meter band - ANSWER-(D) E1A08 What is the only emission type permitted to be transmitted on the 60 meter band by an amateur station? A. CW B. RTTY Frequency shift keying C. Single sideband, upper sideband only D. Single sideband, lower sideband only - ANSWER-(C) E1A09 Which frequency bands contain at least one segment authorized only to control operators holding an Amateur Extra Class operator license? A. 80/75, 40, 20 and 15 meters B. 80/75, 40, 20, and 10 meters C. 80/75, 40, 30 and 10 meters D. 160, 80/75, 40 and 20 meters - ANSWER-(A) E1A10 If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation? A. The control operator of the packet bulletin board station B. The control operator of the originating station C. The control operators of all the stations in the system D. The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications - ANSWER-(B) E1A11 What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules? A. Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it B. Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules C. Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office D. Discontinue forwarding all messages - ANSWER-(A) E1A12 If an amateur station is installed on board a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated? A. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft B. The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use C. It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply D. Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license - ANSWER-(A) E1A13 When a US-registered vessel is in international waters, what type of FCC-issued license or permit is required to transmit amateur communications from an on-board amateur transmitter? A. Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement B. Any amateur license or reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee C. Only General class or higher amateur licenses D. An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit - ANSWER-(B) E1B01 Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission? A. An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification B. A signal transmitted in a way that prevents its detection by any station other than the intended recipient C. Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licensed radio station D. An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted - ANSWER-(D) E1B02 Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted? A. The location is in or near an area of political conflict, military maneuvers or major construction B. The location's geographical or horticultural importance C. The location is in an ITU zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments D. The location is significant to our environment, American history, architecture, or culture. - ANSWER-(D) E1B03 Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference? A. 1 mile B. 3 miles C. 10 miles D. 30 miles - ANSWER-(A) E1B04 What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places? A. A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service B. A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society C. An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC D. A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior - ANSWER-(C) E1B05 What height restrictions apply to an amateur station antenna structure not close to a public use airport unless the FAA is notified and it is registered with the FCC? A. It must not extend more than 300 feet above average height of terrain surrounding the site B. It must be no higher than 200 feet above ground level at its site C. There are no height restrictions because the structure obviously would not be a hazard to aircraft in flight D. It must not extend more than 100 feet above sea level or the rim of the nearest valley or canyon - ANSWER-(B) E1B06 Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site within 20,000 feet of a public use airport? A. You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC B. No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height C. You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins D. You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority - ANSWER-(A) E1B07 Whose approval is required before erecting an amateur station antenna located at or near a public use airport if the antenna would exceed a certain height depending upon the antenna's distance from the nearest active runway? A. The FAA must be notified and it must be registered with the FCC B. Approval must be obtained from the airport manager C. Approval must be obtained from the local zoning authorities D. The FAA must approve any antenna structure that is higher than 20 feet - ANSWER-(A) E1B08 On what frequencies may the operation of an amateur station be restricted if its emissions cause interference to the reception of a domestic broadcast station on a receiver of good engineering design? A. On the frequency used by the domestic broadcast station B. On all frequencies below 30 MHz C. On all frequencies above 30 MHz D. On the interfering amateur service transmitting frequencies - ANSWER-(D) E1B09 What is the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES)? A. A radio service using amateur service frequencies on a regular basis for communications that can reasonably be furnished through other radio services B. A radio service of amateur stations for civil defense communications during periods of local, regional, or national civil emergencies C. A radio service using amateur service frequencies for broadcasting to the public during periods of local, regional or national civil emergencies D. A radio service using local government frequencies by Amateur Radio operators for civil emergency communications - ANSWER-(B) E1B10 Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES? A. Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators B. Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class operator's station C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served D. Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) - ANSWER-(C) E1B11 What frequencies are normally authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES? A. All amateur service frequencies otherwise authorized to the control operator B. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands C. Specific local government channels D. Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels - ANSWER-(A) E1B12 What are the frequencies authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES during a period when the President's War Emergency Powers are in force? A. All frequencies in the amateur service authorized to the control operator B. Specific amateur service frequency segments authorized in FCC Part 214 C. Specific local government channels D. Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels - ANSWER-(B) E1B13 What communications are permissible in RACES? A. Any type of communications when there is no emergency B. Any Amateur Radio Emergency Service communications C. Authorized civil defense emergency communications affecting the immediate safety of life and property D. National defense and security communications authorized by the President - ANSWER-(C) E1C01 What is a remotely controlled station? A. A station operated away from its regular home location B. A station controlled by someone other than the licensee C. A station operating under automatic control D. A station controlled indirectly through a control link - ANSWER-(D) E1C02 What is meant by automatic control of a station? A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point B. A station operating with its output power controlled automatically C. Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link D. The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station - ANSWER-(A) E1C03 How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control? A. Under local control there is no control operator B. Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point C. Under automatic control there is no control operator D. Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point - ANSWER-(B) E1C04 When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications? A. Never B. Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions C. When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations D. When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration - ANSWER-(B) E1C05 When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications? A. Never B. Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions C. When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations D. When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration - ANSWER-(A) E1C06 Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true? A. Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station B. A control operator need not be present at the control point C. A control operator must be present at the control point D. Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled - ANSWER-(C) E1C07 What is meant by local control? A. Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link B. Automatically manipulating local station controls C. Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator D. Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver - ANSWER-(C) E1C08 What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions? A. 30 seconds B. 3 minutes C. 5 minutes D. 10 minutes - ANSWER-(B) E1C09 Which of these frequencies are available for automatically controlled ground-station repeater operation? A. 18.110 - 18.168 MHz B. 24.940 - 24.990 MHz C. 10.100 - 10.150 MHz D. 29.500 - 29.700 MHz - ANSWER-(D) E1C10 What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations? A. Only beacon, repeater or space stations B. Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations C. Only earth stations, repeater stations or model crafts D. Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations - ANSWER-(B) E1D01 What is the definition of the term telemetry? A. One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument B. A two-way interactive transmission C. A two-way single channel transmission of data D. One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance - ANSWER-(A) E1D02 What is the amateur-satellite service? A. A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self-training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs B. A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites C. A radio communications service using amateur stations on satellites D. A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for weather information gathering - ANSWER-(C) E1D03 What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service? A. An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communications with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites B. An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate certain functions of a space station C. An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface D. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from space - ANSWER-(B) E1D04 What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service? A. An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space B. An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites C. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space D. Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth - ANSWER-(A) E1D05 What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station? A. Any except those of Technician Class operators B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators C. A holder of any class of license D. Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators - ANSWER-(C) E1D06 Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements? A. The space station must be capable of effecting a cessation of transmissions by telecommand when so ordered by the FCC B. The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years C. The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA D. The station call sign must appear on all sides of the spacecraft - ANSWER-(A) E1D07 Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations? A. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m, 12m and 10m B. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m and 10m bands C. 40m, 30m, 20m, 15m, 12m and 10m bands D. All HF bands - ANSWER-(A) E1D08 Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations? A. 6 meters and 2 meters B. 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters C. 2 meters and 1.25 meters D. 2 meters - ANSWER-(D) E1D09 Which amateur service UHF bands have frequencies available for a space station? A. 70 cm B. 70 cm, 23 cm, 13 cm C. 70 cm and 33 cm D. 33 cm and 13 cm - ANSWER-(B) E1D10 Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations? A. Any amateur station designated by NASA B. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee C. Any amateur station so designated by the ITU D. All of these choices are correct - ANSWER-(B) E1D11 Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations? A. Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators C. Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators D. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator - ANSWER-(D) E1D12 Who must be notified before launching an amateur space station? A. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration, Houston, TX B. The FCC's International Bureau, Washington, DC C. The Amateur Satellite Corp., Washington, DC D. All of these answers are correct - ANSWER-(B) E1E01 What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination? A. 5 B. 2 C. 4 D. 3 - ANSWER-(D) E1E02 Where are the questions for all written US amateur license examinations listed? A. In FCC Part 97 B. In an FCC-maintained question pool C. In the VEC-maintained question pool D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order - ANSWER-(C) E1E03 Who is responsible for maintaining the question pools from which all amateur license examination questions must be taken? A. All of the VECs B. The VE team C. The VE question pool team D. The FCC's Wireless Telecommunications Bureau - ANSWER-(A) E1E04 What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator? A. A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations B. A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations D. The person that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager - ANSWER-(C) E1E05 What is a VE? A. An amateur operator who is approved by three or more fellow volunteer examiners to administer amateur license examinations B. An amateur operator who is approved by a VEC to administer amateur operator license examinations C. An amateur operator who administers amateur license examinations for a fee D. An amateur operator who is approved by an FCC staff member to administer amateur operator license examinations - ANSWER-(B) E1E06 What is a VE team? A. A group of at least three VEs who administer examinations for an amateur operator license B. The VEC staff C. One or two VEs who administer examinations for an amateur operator license D. A group of FCC Volunteer Enforcers who investigate Amateur Rules violations - ANSWER-(A) E1E07 Which of the following persons seeking to become VEs cannot be accredited? A. Persons holding less than an Advanced Class operator license B. Persons less than 21 years of age C. Persons who have ever had an amateur operator or amateur station license suspended or revoked D. Persons who are employees of the federal government - ANSWER-(C) E1E08 Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process? A. Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted B. The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau C. The prospective VE obtains accreditation from a VE team D. The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner - ANSWER-(D) E1E09 Where must the VE team be while administering an examination? A. All of the administering VEs must be present where they can observe the examinees throughout the entire examination B. The VEs must leave the room after handing out the exam(s) to allow the examinees to concentrate on the exam material C. The VEs may be elsewhere provided at least one VE is present and is observing the examinees throughout the entire examination D. The VEs may be anywhere as long as they each certify in writing that examination was administered properly - ANSWER-(A) E1E10 Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session? A. The VEC coordinating the session B. The FCC C. Each administering VE D. The VE session manager - ANSWER-(C) E1E11 What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination? A. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination B. Immediately terminate the candidate's examination C. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results D. Immediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session - ANSWER-(B) E1E12 To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination? A. Employees of the VE B. Friends of the VE C. The VE's close relatives as listed in the FCC rules D. All these answers are correct - ANSWER-(C) E1E13 What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination? A. Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant B. A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence C. A sentence of up to one year in prison D. All of these choices are correct - ANSWER-(A) E1E14 What must the VE team do with the examinee's test papers once they have finished the examination? A. The VE team must collect and send them to the NCVEC B. The VE team must collect and send them to the coordinating VEC for grading C. The VE team must collect and grade them immediately D. The VE team must collect and send them to the FCC for grading - ANSWER-(C) E1E15 What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license? A. Photocopy all examination documents and forwards them to the FCC for processing B. Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the VE requirements C. Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license D. All these answers are correct - ANSWER-(B) E1E16 What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam? A. Return the application document to the examinee B. Maintain the application form with the VEC's records C. Send it to the FCC D. Destroy the application form - ANSWER-(A) E1E17 What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed by the FCC? A. The licensee's license will be cancelled B. The person may be fined or imprisoned C. The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant D. All of the above - ANSWER-(A) E1E18 For which types of out-of-pocket expenses may VEs and VECs be reimbursed? A. Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio license B. Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course C. No expenses are authorized for reimbursement D. Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials - ANSWER-(A) E1E19 How much reimbursement may the VE team and VEC accept for preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination? A. Actual out-of-pocket expenses B. The national minimum hourly wage for time spent providing examination services C. Up to the maximum fee per examinee announced by the FCC annually D. As much as the examinee is willing to donate - ANSWER-(A) E1E20 What is the minimum age to be a volunteer examiner? A. 13 years old B. 16 years old C. 18 years old D. 21 years old - ANSWER-(C) E1F01 On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted? A. Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz B. Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz C. Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz D. Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz - ANSWER-(B) E1F02 Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US? A. CEPT agreement B. IARP agreement C. ITU reciprocal license D. All of these choices are correct - ANSWER-(A) E1F03 Which of the following operating arrangements allow an FCC-licensed US citizen and many Central and South American amateur operators to operate in each other's countries? A. CEPT agreement B. IARP agreement C. ITU agreement D. All of these choices are correct - ANSWER-(B) E1F04 What does it mean if an external RF amplifier is listed on the FCC database as certificated for use in the amateur service? A. The RF amplifier may be marketed for use in any radio service B. That particular RF amplifier may be marketed for use in the amateur service C. All similar RF amplifiers produced by other manufacturers may be marketed D. All RF amplifiers produced by that manufacturer may be marketed - ANSWER-(B) E1F05 Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification? A. It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station B. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit C. It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers D. It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by that country's government - ANSWER-(A) E1F06 Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"? A. A line roughly parallel to and south of the US-Canadian border B. A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline C. A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline D. A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline - ANSWER-(A) E1F07 Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located north of Line A? A. 440 - 450 MHz. B. 53 - 54 MHz C. 222 - 223 MHz D. 420 - 430 MHz - ANSWER-(D) E1F08 What is the National Radio Quiet Zone? A. An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope B. An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area C. An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory D. An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral - ANSWER-(C) E1F09 When may the control operator of a repeater accept payment for providing communication services to another party? A. When the repeater is operating under portable power B. When the repeater is operating under local control C. During Red Cross or other emergency service drills D. Under no circumstances - ANSWER-(D) E1F10 When may an amateur station send a message to a business? A. When the total money involved does not exceed $25 B. When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency C. When transmitting international third-party communications D. When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications - ANSWER-(D) E1F11 Which of the following types of amateur-operator-to-amateur-operator communications are prohibited? A. Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules B. Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine C. Communications that have a religious content D. Communications in a language other than English - ANSWER-(A) E1F12 FCC-licensed amateur stations may use spread spectrum (SS) emissions to communicate under which of the following conditions? A. When the other station is in an area regulated by the FCC B. When the other station is in a country permitting SS communications C. When the transmission is not used to obscure the meaning of any communication D. All of these choices are correct - ANSWER-(D) E1F13 What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications? A. 1 W B. 1.5 W C. 100 W D. 1.5 kW - ANSWER-(C) E1F14 Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification? A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power B. It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks C. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range D. It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at its full output power - ANSWER-(D) E1F15 Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station? A. Any licensed amateur operator B. Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators C. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators D. Only Amateur Extra Class operators - ANSWER-(B) E1F16 What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries? A. Business-related messages B. Automatic retransmissions of any amateur communications C. Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature D. All of these choices are correct - ANSWER-(C) E1F17 Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a "Special Temporary Authority" (STA) to an amateur station? A. To provide for experimental amateur communications B. To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels C. To provide additional spectrum for personal use D. To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing - ANSWER-(A) E2A01 What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite? A. From west to east B. From east to west C. From south to north D. From north to south - ANSWER-(C) E2A02 What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite? A. From north to south B. From west to east C. From east to west D. From south to north - ANSWER-(A) E2A03 What is the orbital period of a satellite? A. The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit B. The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit C. The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth D. The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee - ANSWER-(C) E2A04 What is meant by the term "mode" as applied to an amateur radio satellite? A. The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite B. The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands C. The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth D. Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit - ANSWER-(B) E2A05 What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify? A. Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions B. The location of the ground control station C. The polarization of uplink and downlink signals D. The uplink and downlink frequencies - ANSWER-(D) E2A06 On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in A. 432 MHz B. 144 MHz C. 50 MHz D. 28 MHz - ANSWER-(A) E2A07 Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder? A. FM and CW B. SSB and SSTV C. PSK and Packet D. All these answers are correct - ANSWER-(D) E2A08 What is the primary reason for satellite users to limit their transmit ERP? A. For RF exposure safety B. Because the satellite transmitter output power is limited C. To avoid limiting the signal of the other users D. To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs - ANSWER-(B) E2A09 What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications? A. The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands B. The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands C. FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems D. Which sideband to use - ANSWER-(A) E2A10 Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect? A. Because the satellite is rotating B. Because of ionospheric absorption C. Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude D. Because of the Doppler effect - ANSWER-(A) E2A11 What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation? A. A linearly polarized antenna B. A circularly polarized antenna C. An isotropic antenna D. A log-periodic dipole array - ANSWER-(B) E2A12 What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time? A. By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite B. By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination C. By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination D. By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite - ANSWER-(D) E2A13 What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky? A. HEO B. Geosynchronous C. Geomagnetic D. LEO - ANSWER-(B) E2A14 What happens to a satellite's transmitted signal due to the Doppler Effect? A. The signal strength is reduced as the satellite passes overhead B. The signal frequency shifts lower as the satellite passes overhead C. The signal frequency shifts higher as the satellite passes overhead D. The polarization of the signal continually rotates - ANSWER-(B) E2B01 How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system? A. 30 B. 60 C. 90 D. 120 - ANSWER-(A) E2B02 How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame? A. 30 B. 60 C. 525 D. 1080 - ANSWER-(C) E2B03 How is an interlace scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system? A. By scanning two fields simultaneously B. By scanning each field from bottom to top C. By scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in the next D. By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered ones in the next - ANSWER-(D) E2B04 What is blanking in a video signal? A. Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses B. Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left or from bottom to top C. Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission D. Transmitting a black and white test pattern - ANSWER-(B) E2B05 Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast scan TV transmissions? A. The vestigial sideband carries the audio information B. The vestigial sideband contains chroma information C. Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video - ANSWER-(C) E2B06 What is vestigial sideband modulation? A. Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of - ANSWER-(A) E2B07 What is the name of the video signal component that carries color information? A. Luminance B. Chroma C. Hue D. Spectral Intensity - ANSWER-(B) E2B08 Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television? A. Frequency-modulated sub-carrier B. A separate VHF or UHF audio link C. Frequency modulation of the video carrier D. All of these choices are correct - ANSWER-(D) E2B09 What hardware, other than a transceiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV based on Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)? A. A special IF converter B. A special front end limiter C. A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses D. No other hardware is needed - ANSWER-(D) E2B10 Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands? A. 3 KHz B. 10 KHz C. 15 KHz D. 20 KHz - ANSWER-(A) E2B11 What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code transmitted as part of an SSTV transmission? A. To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images B. To identify the SSTV mode being used C. To provide vertical synchronization D. To identify the callsign of the station transmitting - ANSWER-(B) E2B12 How are analog slow-scan television images typically transmitted on the HF bands? A. Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation B. Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation C. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using FM D. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband - ANSWER-(D) E2B13 How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture? A. 30 to 60 B. 60 or 100 C. 128 or 256 D. 180 or 360 - ANSWER-(C) E2B14 What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture? A. Tone frequency B. Tone amplitude C. Sync amplitude D. Sync frequency - ANSWER-(A) E2B15 What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line? A. Specific tone frequencies B. Elapsed time C. Specific tone amplitudes D. A two-tone signal - ANSWER-(A) E2B16 Which of the following is the video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations? A. PAL B. DRM C. Scottie D. NTSC - ANSWER-(D) E2B17 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of FMTV (Frequency-Modulated Amateur Television) as compared to vestigial sideband AM television? A. Immunity from fading due to limiting B. Poor weak signal performance C. Greater signal bandwidth D. Greater complexity of receiving equipment - ANSWER-(A) E2B18 What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal? A. 600 Hz B. 3 kHz C. 2 MHz D. 6 MHz - ANSWER-(B) E2B19 On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FMTV transmissions? A. 14.230 MHz B. 29.6 MHz C. 52.525 MHz D. 1255 MHz - ANSWER-(D) E2B20 What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions? A. None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies B. They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945 MHz C. They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type D. They are not permitted above 54 MHz - ANSWER-(C) E2B21 If 100 IRE units correspond to the most-white level in the NTSC standard video format, what is the level of the most-black signal? A. 140 IRE units B. 7.5 IRE units C. 0 IRE units D. -40 IRE units - ANSWER-(B) E2C01 Which of the following is true about contest operating? A. Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log B. Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable C. It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station D. Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange - ANSWER-(A) E2C02 Which of the following best describes "self spotting" in regards to contest operating? A. The generally prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting network B. The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network C. A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station D. An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station - ANSWER-(A) E2C03 From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded? A. 30 meters B. 6 meters C. 2 meters D. 33 cm - ANSWER-(A) E2C04 On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged? A. 3.525 MHz B. 14.020 MHz C. 28.330 MHz D. 146.52 MHz - ANSWER-(D) E2C05 Which of the following frequencies would generally be acceptable for U.S. stations to work other U.S. stations in a phone contest? A. 5405 kHz B. 14.310 MHz C. 50.050 MHz D. 146.52 MHz - ANSWER-(B) E2C06 During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity? A. At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests B. In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency C. In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency D. In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency - ANSWER-(C) E2C07 What is the Cabrillo format? A. A standard for organizing information in contest log files B. A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO C. The most common set of contest rules D. The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors - ANSWER-(A) E2C08 Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference? A. Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed in the receiver B. The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered C. The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker circuit D. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies - ANSWER-(A) E2C09 How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping (FH) work? A. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies B. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear C. A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence D. The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station - ANSWER-(D) E2C10 Why might a phone DX station state that he is listening on another frequency? A. Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations B. To separate the calling stations from the DX station C. To reduce interference, thereby improving operating efficiency D. All of these choices are correct - ANSWER-(D) E2C11 How should you generally sign your call when attempting to contact a DX station working a "pileup" or in a contest? A. Send your full call sign once or twice B. Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact C. Send your full call sign and grid square D. Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words "this is", then your call sign three times - ANSWER-(A) E2C12 In North America during low sunspot activity, when signals from Europe become weak and fluttery across an entire HF band two to three hours after sunset, what might help to contact other European DX stations? A. Switch to a higher frequency HF band B. Switch to a lower frequency HF band C. Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass D. Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band - ANSWER-(B) E2D01 What does "command mode" mean in packet operations? A. Your computer is ready to run packet communications software B. The TNC is ready to receive instructions via the keyboard C. Your TNC has received a command packet from a remote TNC D. The computer is ready to be set up to communicate with the TNC - ANSWER-(B) E2D02 What is the definition of "baud"? A. The number of data symbols transmitted per second B. The number of characters transmitted per second C. The number of characters transmitted per minute D. The number of words transmitted per minute - ANSWER-(A) E2D03 Which of the follow is true when comparing HF and 2-meter packet operations? A. HF packet typically uses FSK with a data rate of 300 baud; 2-meter packet uses AFSK with a data rate of 1200 baud B. HF packet and 2-meter packet operations use different codes for information exchange C. HF packet is limited to Amateur Extra class amateur licensees; 2-meter packet is open to all but Novice Class amateur licensees D. HF and 2-meter packet operations are both limited to CW/Data-only band segments - ANSWER-(A) E2D04 What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur satellite? A. To upload operational software for the transponder B. To delay download of telemetry until the satellite is over the control station C. To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations D. To relay messages between satellites - ANSWER-(C) E2D05 Which of the following techniques is normally used by low-earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world? A. Digipeating B. Store-and-forward C. Multi-satellite relaying D. Node hopping - ANSWER-(B) E2D06 Which of the following is a commonly used 2-meter APRS frequency? A. 144.20 MHz B. 144.39 MHz C. 145.02 MHz D. 146.52 MHz - ANSWER-(B) E2D07 Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS? A. AX.25 B. 802.11 C. PACTOR D. AMTOR - ANSWER-(A) E2D08 Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data? A. Connect frames B. Disconnect frames C. Acknowledgement frames D. Unnumbered Information frames - ANSWER-(D) E2D09 Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput? A. AMTOR B. 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY C. PSK31 D. 300-baud packet - ANSWER-(D) E2D10 How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity? A. An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital B. APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points C. An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event D. All of these choices are correct - ANSWER-(C) E2D11 Which of the following data sources are needed to accurately transmit your geographical location over the APRS network? A. The NMEA-0183 formatted data from a Global Positioning System (GPS) satellite receiver B. The latitude and longitude of your location, preferably in degrees, minutes and seconds, entered into the APRS computer software C. The NMEA-0183 formatted data from a LORAN navigation system D. Any of these choices is correct - ANSWER-(D) E2E01 What is a common method of transmitting data emissions below 30 MHz? A. DTMF tones modulating an FM signal B. FSK/AFSK C. Pulse modulation D. Spread spectrum - ANSWER-(B) E2E02 What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation? A. Forward Error Correction B. First Error Correction C. Fatal Error Correction D. Final Error Correction - ANSWER-(A) E2E03 How is Forward Error Correction implemented? A. By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters B. By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters C. By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors D. By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm - ANSWER-(C) E2E04 What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears? A. Selective fading has occurred B. One of the signal filters has saturated C. The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency D. The mark and space signal have been inverted - ANSWER-(A) E2E05 How does ARQ accomplish error correction? A. Special binary codes provide automatic correction B. Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction C. If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted D. If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested - ANSWER-(D) E2E06 What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications? A. 48 baud B. 110 baud C. 300 baud D. 1200 baud - ANSWER-(C) E2E07 What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal? A. 31 Hz B. 316 Hz C. 550 Hz D. 2 kHz - ANSWER-(B) E2E08 Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files? A. Hellschreiber B. PACTOR C. RTTY D. AMTOR - ANSWER-(B) E2E09 Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency? A. RTTY B. PACTOR C. MT63 D. PSK31 - ANSWER-(D) E2E11 What is the Baudot code? A. A code used to transmit data only in modern computer-based data systems using seven data bits B. A binary code consisting of eight data bits C. An alternate name for Morse code D. The International Telegraph Alphabet Number 2 (ITA2) which uses five data bits - ANSWER-(D) E2E12 Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth? A. MFSK16 B. 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY C. PSK31 D. 300-baud packet - ANSWER-(C) E3A01 What is the approximate maximum separation along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by moonbounce? A. 500 miles if the moon is at perigee B. 2000 miles, if the moon is at apogee C. 5000 miles, if the moon is at perigee D. 12,000 miles, as long as both can "see" the moon - ANSWER-(D) E3A02 What characterizes libration fading of an earth-moon-earth signal? A. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal B. A fluttery irregular fading C. A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises D. The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal - ANSWER-(B) E3A03 When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss? A. When the moon is at perigee B. When the moon is full C. When the moon is at apogee D. When the MUF is above 30 MHz - ANSWER-(A) E3A04 What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications? A. Equipment with very wide bandwidth B. Equipment with very low dynamic range C. Equipment with very low gain D. Equipment with very low noise figures - ANSWER-(D) E3A05 What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz when attempting an EME contact? A. Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and then receives for the following two minutes B. One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then receives for the following one minute C. Two-and-one-half minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full 2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes D. Five-minute sequences, where one station transmits for five minutes and then receives for the following five minutes - ANSWER-(A) E3A06 What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 432 MHz when attempting an EME contact? A. Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and then receives for the following two minutes B. One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then receives for the following one minute C. Two-and-one-half minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full 2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes D. Five-minute sequences, where one station transmits for five minutes and then receives for the following five minutes - ANSWER-(C) E3A07 What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stations in the 2 meter band? A. 144.000 - 144.001 MHz B. 144.000 - 144.100 MHz C. 144.100 - 144.300 MHz D. 145.000 - 145.100 MHz - ANSWER-(B) E3A08 What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stations in the 70 cm band? A. 430.000 - 430.150 MHz B. 430.100 - 431.100 MHz C. 431.100 - 431.200 MHz D. 432.000 - 432.100 MHz - ANSWER-(D) E3A09 When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere? A. The E layer B. The F1 layer C. The F2 layer D. The D layer - ANSWER-(A) E3A10 Which range of frequencies is well suited for meteor-scatter communications? A. 1.8 - 1.9 MHz B. 10 - 14 MHz C. 28 - 148 MHz D. 220 - 450 MHz - ANSWER-(C) E3A11 What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz when attempting a meteor-scatter contact? A. Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and then receives for the following two minutes B. One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then receives for the following one minute C. 15-second sequences, where one station transmits for 15 seconds and then receives for the following 15 seconds D. 30-second sequences, where one station transmits for 30 seconds and then receives for the following 30 seconds - ANSWER-(C) E3B01 What is transequatorial propagation? A. Propagation between two points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator B. Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator C. Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator D. Propagation between two stations at the same latitude - ANSWER-(A) E3B02 What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation? A. 1000 miles B. 2500 miles C. 5000 miles D. 7500 miles - ANSWER-(C) E3B03 What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation? A. Morning B. Noon C. Afternoon or early evening D. Late at night - ANSWER-(C) E3B04 What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals? A. Long-path B. Sporadic-E C. Transequatorial D. Auroral - ANSWER-(A) E3B05 Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation? A. 160 to 40 meters B. 30 to 10 meters C. 160 to 10 meters D. 6 meters to 2 meters - ANSWER-(C) E3B06 Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation? A. 80 meters B. 20 meters C. 10 meters D. 6 meters - ANSWER-(B) E3B07 Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station? A. High D layer absorption B. Meteor scatter C. Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF D. Receipt of a signal by more than one path - ANSWER-(D) E3B08 What type of propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness? A. Transequatorial B. Sporadic-E C. Long-path D. Gray-line - ANSWER-(D) E3B09 At what time of day is gray-line propagation most prevalent? A. At sunrise and sunset B. When the sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station C. When the sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations D. When the sun is directly above the location of the receiving station - ANSWER-(A) E3B10 What is the cause of gray-line propagation? A. At midday, the sun, being directly overhead, superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves B. At twilight, solar absorption drops greatly, while atmospheric ionization is not weakened enough to reduce the MUF C. At darkness, solar absorption drops greatly, while atmospheric ionization remains steady D. At mid afternoon, the sun heats the ionosphere, increasing radio wave refraction and the MUF - ANSWER-(B) E3B11 What communications are possible during gray-line propagation? A. Contacts up to 2,000 miles only on the 10-meter band B. Contacts up to 750 miles on the 6- and 2-meter bands C. Contacts up to 8,000 to 10,000 miles on three or four HF bands D. Contacts up to 12,000 to 15,000 miles on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands - ANSWER-(C) E3C01 What effect does auroral activity have on radio communications? A. Signals experience long-delay echo B. FM communications are clearer C. CW signals have a clearer tone D. CW signals have a fluttery tone - ANSWER-(D) E3C02 What is the cause of auroral activity? A. Reflections in the solar wind B. A low sunspot level C. The emission of charged particles from the sun D. Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes - ANSWER-(C) E3C03 Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur? A. At F-region height B. In the equatorial band C. At D-region height D. At E-region height - ANSWER-(D) E3C04 Which emission mode is best for auroral propagation? A. CW B. SSB C. FM D. RTTY - ANSWER-(A) E3C05 What causes selective fading? A. Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station B. Phase differences in the received signal caused by different paths C. Large changes in the height of the ionosphere D. Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations - ANSWER-(B) E3C06 How much farther does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? A. By approximately 15% of the distance B. By approximately twice the distance C. By approximately one-half the distance D. By approximately four times the distance - ANSWER-(A) E3C07 How does the radiation pattern of a 3-element, horizontally polarized beam antenna vary with height above ground? A. The main lobe takeoff angle increases with increasing height B. The main lobe takeoff angle decreases with increasing height C. The horizontal beam width increases with height D. The horizontal beam width decreases with height - ANSWER-(B) E3C08 What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travels for some distance within the F2 region? A. Oblique-angle ray B. Pedersen ray C. Ordinary ray D. Heaviside ray - ANSWER-(B) E3C09 What effect is usually responsible for propagating a VHF signal over 500 miles? A. D-region absorption B. Faraday rotation C. Tropospheric ducting D. Moonbounce - ANSWER-(C) E3C10 How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground? A. The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction B. The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction C. The horizontal beam width decreases in the downhill direction D. The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction - ANSWER-(B) E3C11 From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of auroral propagation? A. South B. North C. East D. West - ANSWER-(B) E3C12 As the frequency of a signal is increased, how does its ground wave propagation change? A. It increases B. It decreases C. It stays the same D. Radio waves don't propagate along the Earth's surface - ANSWER-(B) E3C13 What type of polarization does most ground-wave propagation have? A. Vertical B. Horizontal C. Circular D. Elliptical - ANSWER-(A) E3C14 Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? A. E-region skip B. D-region skip C. Auroral skip D. Radio waves may be bent - ANSWER-(D) E4A01 How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional oscilloscope? A. A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals B. A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average amplitude of signals C. A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain D. A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies - ANSWER-(C) E4A02 Which of the following parameters would a typical spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis? A. SWR B. Q C. Time D. Frequency - ANSWER-(D) E4A03 Which of the following parameters would a typical spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis? A. Amplitude B. Duration C. SWR D. Q - ANSWER-(A) E4A04 Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter? A. A spectrum analyzer B. A wattmeter C. A logic analyzer D. A time-domain reflectometer - ANSWER-(A) E4A05 Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission? A. A wattmeter B. A spectrum analyzer C. A logic analyzer D. A time-domain reflectometer - ANSWER-(B) E4A06 Which of the following could be determined with a spectrum analyzer? A. The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2 meter duplexer B. Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency C. The spectral output of a transmitter D. All of these choices are correct - ANSWER-(D) E4A07 Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer vs. a SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR? A. Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance B. Antenna ana