Paramedic Final Review Questions With 100% Correct Answers 2023

Paramedic Final Review Questions With 100% Correct Answers 2023 1. The amount of air a pt moves into and out of his lungs in one breath is the: A. minute volume B. respiratory volume C. residual volume D. tidal volume - Correct Answer: D 2. When testing orthostatic vitals, what vital sign change is the most sensitive positive sign of hypovolemia? A. BP drops by 10-20 B. BP rises by 10-20 C. pulse rate rises by 10-20 D. pulse rate drops by 10-20 - Correct Answer: C 3. Which pulse is recommended to check in peds? A. brachial B. radial C. carotid D. femoral - Correct Answer:A 4. Which skin discoloration represents liver malfunction? A. cyanosis B. jaundice C. eccyhmosis D. erythema - Correct Answer: B 5. Definition of pathological Q wave: A. 0.08 seconds wide and a depth greater than ¼ the height of the R wave B. 0.04 seconds wide and a depth greater than ¼ the height of the R wave C. injury until proven otherwise D. greater than 25 mV - Correct Answer: B 6. How many parts are there to the scene size up? A.3 B.4 C.5 D.6 - Correct Answer: C 7. Initially determining priorities of care and transport is part of the: A. scene size up B. secondary assessment C. primary assessment D. focused assessment - Correct Answer: C 1. What organization is responsible for EMS training guidelines? A. National Registry of EMTs B. Department of Transportation C. Department of Health D. Emergency Medical Services Act - Correct Answer: B 2. What hospital provides initial definitive trauma care without university based teaching? 3. Which infectious disease is not a droplet precaution? 4. What is the most important infection control practice? 5. Which of the following is not a recommended vaccination? 6. What is the greatest hazard for EMS personnel? A. Level 1 Facility B. Level 2 Trauma Center C. Level 3 Trauma Center D. Level 4 Facilities - Correct Answer: B A. Meningitis B. SARS C. Pneumonia D. Varicella - Correct Answer: A A. Protective Gloves B. N95 Mask C. Washing Your Hands D. Cleaning the ambulance after every patient - Correct Answer: C A. Hepatitis C B. Tetanus C. Rubella D. Hepatitis B - Correct Answer: A A. Terrorist Attack B. Hazmat Situations C. Accidental Exposure D. Motor Vehicle Collisions - Correct Answer: D 7. What kind of study would include research on the amount of cardiac arrest survivors Chicago had last year? A. Retrospective and Quantitative B. Prospective and Quantitative C. Retrospective and Qualitative D. Prospective and Quantitative - Correct Answer: A Motor is_____, Sensory is _____ in the spinal cord? A Posterior, Anterior B Anterior, Posterior C Midline, Midspine D Not present - Correct Answer B The VII cranial nerve controls A Tongue B Brain & eyes C hearing D facial expressions and taste - Correct answer D How many nerves are in the spine? A 33 B 13 C 23 D 103 - Correct answer A Which would indicate spinal cord injury? A hypertension, tachycardia, and deep respirations B hypotension, bradycardia, and shallow respirations C hypertension, bradycardia, and shallow respirations D hypotension, tachicardia and deep respirations - Correct answer B The blood pressure in a patient with suspected head injury should not be below A 90mmhg B 110 mmhg C 100 mmhg D 120 mmhg - Correct answer A The tears are manufactured in the __________and then spread across the eye laterally to medially, where they drain through the lacrimal ducts into the nose. A. Excretory ducts B. Lacrimal sac C. Lacrimal gland D. Lacrimal papillae - Correct Answer:C An infection or inflammation that is very contagious. Causes red, itching and production of more tears than usual. Often called "pink eye" A. Chalazion B. Conjunctivitis C. Glaucoma D. Cataract - Correct Answer: B What is the second most common cause of blindness in the United States? It is characterized by an increase pressure within the eye, that damages the optic nerve. A. Glaucoma B. Cataract C. Syphilis D. Pterygium - Correct Answer: A An infection of the submandibular space under the tongue, primarily resulting from infection of the second or third molar; may cause blockage of the airway. A. Oral candidiasis B. Tonsillitis C. Ludwigs angina D. dental abscess - Correct Answer: C A common form of bone disease, caused by thinning of bone tissue and loss of bone density. Occurs when the body fails to produce enough new bone to replace bone that is being resorbed or used. A. Osteoarthritis B. Osteoporosis C. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome D. Myalgias - Correct Answer: B A discoloration of of the skin that is usually blue or black. This is a foul-smelling discharge and loss of sensation in the affected area. Results as death of the tissue. A. Gangrene B. Neuropathic arthropathy C. Inflammation D. Diabetic foot - Correct Answer: A A form of inflammatory arthritis that primarily affects the spine. Resulting in the spine becomes stiff and inflexible were the spine if fused together. A. Rheumatoid Arthritis B. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus C. Gout D. Ankylosing Spondylitis - Correct Answer: D What is a disease of the inner ear that affects balance and hearing and occurs when the labyrinths within the inner ear become swollen. A. Labyrinthitis B. Vertigo C. Meniere's disease D. Mastoiditis - Correct Answer: C 1. What ribs are the most commonly fractured? A. 4-8 B. 7-3 C. 5-9 D. 6-9 - Correct Answer A 2. Which of the following is NOT a sign of Beck's triad? A. Distant heart tones B. JVD C. Pulses paradoxus D. Hypotension - Correct Answer C 3. What pathophysiology is associated with a pulmonary contusion? A. Increased pressure in the head, neck, and chest cavity B. Direct bruising to the lung tissue C. The presence of air in the soft tissue D. Three or more fractured ribs, causing a moving segment of chest wall - Correct Answer A 4. Which of the following best describes cyanosis to the face and neck that occur in traumatic asphyxia? A. Decreased blood flow to the head and neck B. Backflow of blood from the right heart into the neck C. Increased oxygenated blood flow D. Decreased pressure in the chest cavity - Correct Answer B 5. Your patient is a 17-year-old male who is complaining of left-sided chest pain after being tackled in a football game. Examination reveals pain and crepitus around the 10th and 11th ribs on the left side. Which of the following may be present as an underlying injury? A. Diaphragmatic rupture B. Injury to the liver C. Mesenteric injury Erika Miranda V.5 CH 8,9 D. Injury to the spleen - Correct Answer D 6. At what percentage of maternal blood loss in the pregnant mother are changes in BP or heart rate evident? a. 10-15 b. 20-25 c. 30-35 d. 40-45 - Correct AnswerD 7. A 44-year-old male was hit by a motor vehicle while jogging. You begin to assess the patient. You notice that he is cyanotic and has agonal respirations. He has obvious flail chest, multiple contusions, clear heart tones, and air movement through his airway. Upon auscultation, you notice that the patient has a deviated trachea and he has decreased breath sounds on the right. Based on this scenario, which of the following is the most likely to be fatal if not treated? A. Contusion B. Cardiac tamponade C. Flail chest D. Tension pneumothorax - Correct Answer D 8. A patient was run over by a car. There are tire marks on the chest wall. The patient has cyanosis to the face and neck. Heart tones are muffled and lung sounds are shallow with agonal respirations. Which of the following conditions is most likely occurring in this patient based on the assessment? A. Flail chest B. Subcutaneous emphysema C. Traumatic asphyxia D. Tension pneumothorax - Correct Answer C 9. Signs or symptoms commonly associated with hemothorax include: A. Shock Erika Miranda V.5 CH 8,9 B. Bradycardia C. Hyperresonance D. Tracheal deviation to the affected side - Correct Answer A 1. Which of the following agencies became involved with setting ambulance standards due to awareness of infectious diseases? A. DOT B. NHTSA C. CAAS D. OSHA - Correct Answer: D 2. When setting up a helicopter landing zone, what is the minimum size it should be? A. 50'x50' B. 75'x75' C. 100'x100' D. 150'x150' - Correct Answer: C 3. The most dangerous direction to approach an aircraft while the engines are on is? A. The rear B. The front C. The downhill side D. The pilot's side - Correct Answer: A 4. Most state EMS agencies establish what kind of standard regarding ambulance operation? A. Gold B. Optimal C. Minimum D. Maximum - Correct Answer: C 5. Which of the following is a good distance to use when positioning the ambulance at a crash scene? A. 50 feet from the crash scene B. 100 feet from the crash scene C. 200 feet from the crash scene D. As close as possible - Correct Answer: B 6. What's the most common type of crash involving an ambulance identified by data from New York State? A. Lateral impact at an uncontrolled intersection with low visibility B. Rollover due to high speed on a wet road C. Rear-end collision at a low speed with no weather issues D. Lateral impact at a controlled intersection with no weather issues - Correct Answer: D 7. Limitations to air medical transport include? A. Lack of fuel B. Short distances C. Cost D. Spinal injuries - Correct Answer: C In placenta previa the cervix is is blocked or partially occluded by the placenta. The most likely symptoms and signs are: A. Intermittent bleeding, accompanied by cramping B. Fetal hypoxia, maternal hypertension C. Painless bleeding D. There are no observable signs and symptoms - Correct Answer C In an abruptio placentae, the placenta tears away from the uterine wall causing: