AAFP Board Exam Review 2022 COMPLETE SOLUTION 325 Questions with 100% Correct Answers

What screening test has most potential for overdx? Correct Answer: PSA- Overdiagnosis is the diagnosis of a disease that will not produce symptoms during a patient's lifetime. It tends to occur with cancers that have very slow rates of growth. Prostate cancer is most often a slow-growing cancer and is often present without symptoms in older men. The introduction of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) screening was accompanied by a marked rise in the rate of diagnosis of prostate cancer while mortality decreased much less significantly, and this decrease was probably largely attributable to improved treatment. What is the treatment for mallet fracture? Correct Answer: The recommended treatment for a mallet fracture is splinting the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint in extension (SOR B). The usual duration of splinting is 8 weeks. It is important that extension be maintained throughout the duration of treatment because flexion can affect healing and prolong the time needed for treatment. If the finger fracture involves 30% of the intra-articular surface, referral to a hand or orthopedic surgeon can be considered. However, conservative therapy appears to have outcomes similar to those of surgical treatment and therefore is generally preferred. If subluxed radial head is suspected in a child, is imaging needed? Correct Answer: As long as there are no outward signs of fracture or abuse it is considered safe and appropriate to attempt reduction of the radial head before moving on to imaging studies. With the child's elbow in 90° of flexion, the hand is fully supinated by the examiner and the elbow is then brought into full flexion. Usually the child will begin to use the affected arm again within a couple of minutes. If ecchymosis, significant swelling, or pain away from the joint is present, or if symptoms do not improve after attempts at reduction, then a plain radiograph is recommended. A 17-year-old female sees you for a preparticipation evaluation. She has run 5 miles a day for the last 6 months, and has lost 6 lb over the past 2 months. Her last menstrual period was 3 months ago. Other than the fact that she appears to be slightly underweight, her examination is normal. To fit the criteria for the female athlete triad, she must have which one of the following? Correct Answer: The initial definition of the female athlete triad was amenorrhea, osteoporosis, and disordered eating. The American College of Sports Medicine modified this in 2007, emphasizing that the triad components occur on a continuum rather than as individual pathologic conditions. The definitions have therefore expanded. Disordered eating is no longer defined as the formal diagnosis of an eating disorder. Energy availability,defined as dietary energy intake minus exercise energy expenditures, is now considered a risk factor for the triad, as dietary restrictions and substantial energy expenditures disrupt pituitary and ovarian function. Athletes who have amenorrhea for 6 months, disordered eating, and/or a history of a stress fracture resulting from minimal trauma should have a bone density test. Low bone mineral