MCAT TPR Exam 3

1. A decrease in the temperature of a gas sample in a closed container will always result in an increase in the: A. value of the PV / (RT) ratio. kinetic energy of individual gas molecules. C. gas pressure on the container. D. attraction between gas molecules. Correct Explanation: D. Since the temperature of a gas is proportional to the average kinetic energy of its molecules, decreasing the temperature will result in a decrease in kinetic energy. This decrease in kinetic energy will result in an increased potential energy, or an increased attraction between the individual molecules. 2. At Pext 700 atm, which of the following is possible for a sample of one of the real gases given in Figure 1? A. Videal is less than the total molecular volume. B. Volume effects are negligible. The increased average kinetic Correct Answer energy of the molecules overcomes intermolecular attractions. Intermolecular attractions overcome volume effects. Explanation: A. In the region Pext 700 atm in Figure 1, the values of PV / RT for all the real gases are greater than 1, the ideal. The passage states directly that when PV / RT 1, volume effects predominate. This eliminates choices B and D. Choice C mentions “the increased average kinetic energy of the molecules.” Increased from what? And why and how would it be increased? Choice A is the best choice: At extremely high pressures, the volume of the molecules can become greater than the space between them (Videal). 3. When carbon dioxide in a closed container is subjected to external pressures less than 650 atm, the deviation from ideality is primarily due to the fact that: calculated gas pressure is less than actual gas pressure. calculated volume is less than actual volume. actual number of moles is greater than calculated number of moles. actual gas pressure is less than calculated gas pressure. Correct Answer Explanation: D. At external pressures less than 650 atm, Figure 1 shows that the PV / (RT) ratio for CO2 is less than 1. Therefore, the actual gas pressure is less than the calculated gas pressure (which corresponds to a ratio of 1). 4. Increased intermolecular attractions cause the ratio PV / (RT) to decline because individual molecules: eventually combine with other A. molecules, decreasing the number of particles in the container. lose kinetic energy to potential B. energy and strike the side of the container with less force. increase in speed due to electron repulsion and strike the side of the container with increased force. transfer electrons during D. collisions with other molecules in the container. Correct Answer Explanation: B. Intermolecular attractions increase the potential energy between molecules, decreasing their kinetic energy. Note that the molecules do not undergo any reactions, eliminating choices A and D. Choice C is incorrect because intermolecular attractions do not result in electron repulsion. 5. Decreasing the size of a container of a real gas would always result in: increasing the value of the PV / (RT) ratio. decreasing the value of the PV / (RT) ratio. increasing the gas pressure on the container walls. decreasing the gas pressure on the container walls. Explanation: Correct Answer C. Since the number of moles of the gas, n, is constant, decreasing the volume of the container will always result in an increase in the gas pressure on the container walls. 6. Which of the following conclusions about gas behavior can be drawn from Figure 1? With any change in pressure, the ratio of helium is more affected by molecular volume than is that of methane. With any change in pressure, the B. ratio of helium is more affected by molecular volume than is that of carbon dioxide. With any change in pressure, the ratio of hydrogen is more affected by molecular volume than is that of helium. With any change in pressure, the ratio of methane is more affected by molecular volume than is that of carbon dioxide. Correct Answer Explanation: C. The passage states that molecular volume is responsible for positive deviations of the PV / (RT) ratio. From the figure, it is apparent that only choice C is correct, since for any change in external pressure, the corresponding change in the PV / (RT) ratio is greater for hydrogen than for helium. 7. The negligible percent yield of ammonia at low pressure and high temperature suggests that the decomposition of ammonia gas is an: exothermic and spontaneous reaction. exothermic and nonspontaneous reaction. endothermic and spontaneous reaction. endothermic and nonspontaneous reaction. Explanation: Correct Answer C. The ΔH of the formation of ammonia is given as –91.8 kJ/mol. Therefore, the decomposition of ammonia must have a ΔH of +91.8 kJ/mol, and must be endothermic. Since this decomposition limits the yield of ammonia, it must be a spontaneous process, competing with the formation of ammonia. Note that the decomposition of ammonia produces 4 molecules (1 nitrogen gas molecule and 3 hydrogen gas molecules) for every two molecules of ammonia, so the change in entropy (ΔS) of the decomposition is positive. Therefore, at high temperatures, the reaction will be entropy driven, and the Gibbs free energy (ΔG = ΔH – TΔS) will be negative due to the TΔS term. 8. The low chemical reactivity of nitrogen gas is most likely caused by the: low oxidation state of each nitrogen atom in the molecule. triple bond holding each nitrogen atom in the molecule. low electronegativity of each nitrogen atom in the molecule. small size of each nitrogen gas molecule. Explanation: Correct Answer B. Since the two nitrogen atoms participate in a strong triple bond, a great deal of energy is required to dissociate them, resulting in their low reactivity. 9. The continual removal of the NH3 from the reaction chamber maximizes the reaction yield because: the large volume occupied by ammonia gas decreases the available volume for the remaining reactants, thereby increasing the pressure in the reaction chamber. the ammonia gas will eventually react with the free hydrogen, B. creating ammonium ions and reducing the amount of reactants available to the reaction. removing a product as it forms creates a stress on the reactants C. side of the equilibrium, causing the reaction to produce more ammonia. the presence of excess ammonia increases the temperature in the D. reaction chamber, leading to a decrease in the rate of product formation. Correct Answer Explanation: C. A reaction can be driven forward by the addition of starting materials or the removal of products to perturb the equilibrium. This is an example of Le Châtelier’s principle. 10. In order to maintain the maximum yield of ammonia when raising the temperature of the reaction, scientists should: A. maintain N2 and H2 at high pressure. B. allow N2 and H2 to expand with the increased kinetic energy. increase the volume in the Correct Answer C. reaction chamber to favor the forward reaction. continuously remove the excess D. heat produced by the forward reaction. Explanation: A. In order to maximize the yield of the reaction while increasing temperature, the pressure should be kept as high as possible. Maintaining the compression of the gases (choice A) will maintain a high pressure. However, increasing the volume (choices B or C) would decrease the pressure and lower the overall yield, and lowering the temperature of the reaction (choice D) would also lower the yield. 11. Which one of the following changes to the reaction conditions would cause the greatest increase in the yield of ammonia produced by the Haber process? Increasing pressure from 10 to A. 100 atm at a constant temperature of 350°C Increasing pressure from 10 to B. 1000 atm at a constant temperature of 650°C Increasing pressure from 100 to C. 300 atm at a constant temperature of 250°C Increasing pressure from 100 to D. 600 atm at a constant temperature of 550°C Correct Answer Explanation: A. Increasing the pressure from 10 to 100 atm at 350 °C increases the yield by approximately 30%. The increases in yield from choices B, C, or D are each only approximately 20%. 12. Which of the following is (are) conserved in the collision between the bullet and the block? • Momentum • Kinetic energy • Velocity A. I only Correct B. II only C. I and II only D. I and III only Explanation: A. When the bullet hits the block, its kinetic energy is converted to heat as it burrows into the wood, so neither velocity nor kinetic energy is conserved. Momentum, however, is conserved. 13. The friction present in the ratchet system will have what effect on the experimental results? The calculated muzzle velocity A. will be greater than the actual muzzle velocity. The calculated muzzle velocity B. will be less than the actual muzzle velocity. Correct Answer The calculated muzzle velocity will be unaffected. The effect on the calculated D. muzzle velocity cannot be predicted. Explanation: B. If the ratchet system were frictionless, the block would be able to swing a little farther upwards, giving a greater value of h, and consequently, a greater value for the muzzle velocity, v. Therefore, because friction is present, h will not be as great as it should be, giving a calculated muzzle velocity v that is less than the actual value. 14. 15. Which of the following assumptions is made in this experiment? No energy is consumed by the firing mechanism of the gun. The bullet’s height does not B. change while traveling from the gun to the block. Correct Answer The mass of the block is greater than the mass of the bullet. Some of the bullet’s kinetic D. energy is lost prior to the collision with the block. Explanation: B. Since the quantity being measured, the muzzle velocity v, is set after the gun has fired, the energy consumed by the firing mechanism (if any) is irrelevant. This eliminates choice A. And although C is probably true, the equations given in the passage do not rely on M being greater than m. As for choice D, this is not an assumption on which the procedure is based; it’s a source of error that is “ignored by the experimentalists.” (Note: If the word “Some” in choice D were replaced by “None,” then D would be true.) The answer is B. If the bullet’s height changed while traveling from the gun to the block, then the change in gravitational potential energy would alter the bullet’s total energy when it struck the block, causing h to change, and, consequently, the calculated value for v. Nowhere in the equations given in the passage is there an allowance for gravitational potential energy. 16. If a fifth trial were attempted using a bullet of mass 30 g, the experimentalists could expect the block to swing up to a height of: A. 132 cm. B. 156 cm. C. 170 cm. Correct D. 220 cm. Explanation: C. The data in Table 1 suggest that the height h is (approximately) proportional to m2. Note that, in going from Trial 1 to Trial 2, m increases by a factor of 2, and h increases by a factor of 22 = 4. In going from Trial 1 to Trial 3, m increases by a factor of 3, and h increases (almost) by a factor of 32 = 9. With this assumption, let us compare Trial 2 (with m = 10 g) to the trial proposed in this question. If m increases by a factor of 3 (m = 10 g to m = 30 g), then h should increase (almost) by a factor of 32 = 9, to (20 cm) × 9 = 180 cm. Choice C is best. 17. 18. In order for the mechanism outlined in Figure 1 to produce fresh water, the pressure applied by the piston must be: A. less than the osmotic pressure. B. equal to the osmotic pressure. greater than the osmotic pressure. equal to the atmospheric pressure. Correct Answer Explanation: C. Osmotic pressure will promote the movement of water from areas of low solute concentration (fresh water) to high solute concentration (salt water). For the purification system in Figure 1 to produce fresh water, the pressure on the piston must exceed the opposing osmotic pressure. 19. If the osmotic pressure of the system in Figure 1 is measured to be 80 kPa, approximately how much force must be applied to the piston to precisely counteract the osmotic pressure? (Note: Assume the head of the piston is square and fits exactly in the chamber.) A. 20 kN B. 80 kN C. 160 kN D. 320 kN Correct Explanation: D. By definition, pressure is force per unit area: P = F / A; therefore, F = PA. Since the area of the square-head piston is A = (2 m)2 = 4 m2, the required force on the piston must be F = PA = (80 kPa)(4 m2) = 320 kN. 20. A semipermeable membrane separates an aqueous solution of 0.003 M NaCl from an aqueous solution of 0.0025 M BaF2. With this apparatus, one would observe that water crosses the membrane: A. from the BaF2 solution to dilute the NaCl solution. from the NaCl solution to dilute the BaF2 solution. C. from the BaF2 solution to concentrate the NaCl solution. from the NaCl solution to concentrate the BaF2 solution. Explanation: Correct Answer B. Osmotic pressure is a colligative property, which means it depends only on the concentration of solute particles, and not their identity. Therefore, a 0.03 M solution of NaCl will have an effective molality of 0.006 M (since NaCl is composed of two ions) and a 0.0025 M solution of BaF2 will have an effective molality of 0.0075 M (since BaF2 is composed of three ions). Osmotic pressure will drive movement of water from the lower concentration solution (NaCl) to the higher concentration solution (BaF2). Note that this movement of water acts to dilute the BaF2 solution. 21. A semipermeable membrane separates an aqueous solution of 0.003 M NaCl from an aqueous solution of 0.0025 M BaF2. With this apparatus, one would observe that water crosses the membrane: A. from the BaF2 solution to dilute the NaCl solution. from the NaCl solution to dilute the BaF2 solution. C. from the BaF2 solution to concentrate the NaCl solution. from the NaCl solution to concentrate the BaF2 solution. Explanation: Correct Answer B. Osmotic pressure is a colligative property, which means it depends only on the concentration of solute particles, and not their identity. Therefore, a 0.03 M solution of NaCl will have an effective molality of 0.006 M (since NaCl is composed of two ions) and a 0.0025 M solution of BaF2 will have an effective molality of 0.0075 M (since BaF2 is composed of three ions). Osmotic pressure will drive movement of water from the lower concentration solution (NaCl) to the higher concentration solution (BaF2). Note that this movement of water acts to dilute the BaF2 solution. 22. Which of the following systems would result in the highest total positive pressure against the piston? A. A = 0.5 moles NaCl, B = nothing B. A = 0.6 moles C6H12O6, B = nothing C. A = nothing, B = 0.5 moles NaCl Correct A = nothing, B = 0.6 moles C6H12O6 Explanation: C. To produce osmotic pressure against the piston, the solute concentration on the right side of the osmometer must be higher than that on the left side, eliminating choices A and B. The addition of 0.5 mol of NaCl is the equivalent of 1.0 mol of solute (since NaCl is composed of two ions) and will yield a more concentrated solution than the addition of 0.6 mol of C6H12O6, so choice C results in greater osmotic pressure. 23. What is the characteristic valence-shell electron configuration for atoms in the silicon family? A. ns2 np2 Correct B. ns0 np4 C. ns1 np3 D. ns2 np4 Explanation: A. As indicated on the periodic table, the atoms from Group IVA (column 14) contain four electrons in their valence shell, with two in the s shell and two in the p shell. The valence shell of carbon is 2s22p2, while that of silicon is 3s23p2, both of which are specific examples of a general ns2np2 valence shell. 24. An experiment yielded the following information for the reaction: A + B C + D + E Trial [A]t = 0 (M) [B]t = 0 (M) Initial reaction rate (M/s) 1 0.1 0.1 5 × 10 –6 2 0.2 0.1 2 × 10 –5 3 0.1 0.2 2 × 10 –5 4 0.2 0.2 8 × 10 –5 What is the rate law for this reaction? A. Rate = k[A][B] B. Rate = k[A]2[B] C. Rate = k[A][B]2 D. Rate = k[A]2[B]2 Correct Explanation: D. Comparing Trials 1 and 2, we see that doubling the initial concentration of Reactant A while keeping that of Reactant B constant quadrupled the initial reaction rate. Therefore, the reaction rate must be second order with respect to [A]; this eliminates choices A and C. Comparing Trials 1 and 3, we see that doubling the initial concentration of Reactant B while keeping that of Reactant A constant also quadrupled the initial reaction rate. Therefore, the reaction rate must also be second order with respect to [B]. The answer is D. 25. 26. If the launch speed is kept constant, increasing a projectile’s launch angle of elevation from 45° to 60° will have which of the following effects? An increase in the time in flight, A. distance traveled, and final speed of the projectile An increase in the time in flight, a decrease in the distance traveled, and no change in the final speed of the projectile An decrease in the time in flight, an increase in the distance traveled, and no change in the final speed of the projectile A decrease in the time in flight, D. distance traveled, and final speed of the projectile Correct Answer Explanation: B. The total flight time is equal to twice the time required for the projectile to reach its maximum height, which is the point at which its vertical velocity drops to zero. Since vy = v0y – gt, the time required for the projectile to reach its maximum height is given by t = v0y / g, so the total flight time is where θ0 is the launch angle. Now, because sin 60° sin 45°, the flight time for the projectile launched at θ0 = 60° will be greater than for the one launched at θ0 = 45°. This eliminates choices C and D. To decide between choices A and B, note that choice A includes the statement, “an increase in the...final speed of the projectile.” This cannot be true. Assuming no other forces besides gravity, the final speed of the projectile would equal the initial speed (conservation of mechanical energy). And, if dissipative forces were taken into account, then the speed of the projectile launched at θ0 = 60° would experience a greater decrease in its impact speed (compared to the projectile launched at θ0 = 45°) since it is in the air longer. The answer must be B. 27. A tungsten wire subjected to a tensile stress equal to 7.2 × 107 N/m2 will undergo a fractional change in length of: A. 0.02%. Correct Answer B. 0.05%. C. 2.0%. D. 5.0%. Explanation: A. Since Table 1 gives Ytungsten = 3.6 × 1011 N/m2, Equation 1 gives 2 × 10–4 = 0.02 × 10–2 = 0.02%. 28. When a material that obeys Hooke’s law is stretched, its change in length, x, is directly proportional to the strength of the force of elongation, F, according to the equation F = kx. Which of the following expressions is equal to the Hooke’s law constant, k? A. YAl0 29. If samples of equal dimension of the metals in Table 1 were subjected to identical tensile stresses, which metal would undergo the greatest fractional change in length? A. Tungsten B. Nickel C. Copper D. Aluminum Correct Explanation: D. Because stress = Y × strain, strain is inversely proportional to Y (since stress is a constant here). Therefore, the metal that would undergo the greatest strain is the one with the smallest Young’s modulus. According to Table 1, aluminum has the smallest Young’s modulus of the metals listed. 30. Copper and aluminum wires of identical width and length are subjected to separate stretching forces and undergo the same change in length. If the width of the aluminum wire decreases by 4 × 10–5 m, by how much will the width of the copper wire decrease? A. 2 x 10–5 m B. 4 x 10–5 m C. 8 x 10–5 m Correct D. 16 x 10–5 m Explanation: C. We use Equation 2, which says that the magnitude of the fractional change in width is proportional to s (since Δl / l0 is a constant here). Because s for copper is twice s for aluminum (according to Table 1), the magnitude of the fractional change in width of the copper wire will be twice as large as that of the aluminum wire. Since the fractional change in width of the aluminum wire is (–4 x 10–5 m) / w0, the fractional change in width for the copper wire will be twice as large: (–8 x 10–5 m) / w0. This implies that Δw = –8 x 10–5 m, so the answer is C. 31. Two metal rods, one aluminum and one nickel, are subjected to identical stretching forces and undergo equal fractional change in length. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this occurrence? The cross-sectional area of the A. nickel rod is 3 times that of the aluminum rod. The cross-sectional area of the B. nickel rod is 1/3 that of the aluminum rod. Correct Answer The length of the nickel rod is 3 times that of the aluminum rod. The length of the nickel rod is 1/3 that of the aluminum rod. Explanation: B. The question states that both rods experience the same F and the same strain. Since F / strain = YA, by Equation 1, and the ratio F / strain is the same for both rods, so is the product YA; that is, YAlAAl = YNiANi. Now note from Table 1 that YNi = 3YAl. Substituting this into the previous equation yields AAl = 3ANi, or, equivalently, ANi = (1/3)AAl. 32. A sample of barium sulfate (BaSO4) incompletely dissolves in water. Which of the following correctly expresses the solubility constant for this reaction? A. K = [Ba2+][SO 2–] Correct sp 4 Answer B. Ksp = [Ba2+]2[SO42–]2 C. Ksp = [Ba2+][SO42–]/[BaSO4] D. Ksp = [Ba2+][SO42–]/[BaSO4] [H2O] Explanation: A. The solubility constant is the product of the concentrations of ions in solution, given by choice A. Choice B is incorrect since there is only one sulfate ion for each barium ion, and choices C and D are incorrect because the undissolved barium sulfate should not be included in the equation. 33. At STP, a certain liquid will spontaneously vaporize, even though the reaction is endothermic. The most likely explanation for this is that: A. this reaction results in an increase Correct in entropy. change in enthalpy has no effect on reaction spontaneity. endothermic reactions are always spontaneous. temperature has no effect on reaction spontaneity. Explanation: Answer A. For a reaction to be spontaneous, the Gibbs free energy (ΔG = ΔH – TΔS) must be negative. If the spontaneous reaction is endothermic (i.e, if ΔH is positive), then ΔS must be positive. 34. The human ear can comfortably respond to a range of sound intensity levels from 0 dB to 120 dB. If the decibel level, b, is related to the intensity, I, by the formula b = 10 log (I / I0), then the human ear can comfortably respond to an intensity range that varies by a factor of: A. 12 B. 120 C. 1.2 × 1010 D. 1.0 × 1012 Correct Explanation: D. For each increase by 10 in the decibel level, the intensity increases by a factor of 10. The range from 0 to 120 dB corresponds to twelve such increases in the decibel level, and, correspondingly, to twelve factor-10 increases. Thus, the range of intensities varies by a factor of 1012. 35. What is the pH of a solution containing equal concentrations of acetic acid and acetate ion? A. 1.8 B. 3.5 Correct Answer D. 5.2 Explanation: C. As the passage states, when the concentration of the acid (acetic acid) is equal to the concentration its conjugate base (acetate ion), the pH of the solution will be equal to the pKa of the acid. So pH = pKa = –log Ka = –log (1.8 × 10–5) = 5 – log 1.8 4.7. 36. What is the effect of adding a small amount of a strong acid to the equilibrium shown in Equation 1? A. The equilibrium shifts to the left. Correct B. The pH shifts to 7. C. The pH decreases dramatically. D. The concentration of CH3COO– increases. Explanation: A. According to Le Châtelier’s principle, adding a small amount of acid (H+) to this solution will shift the equilibrium to the left (choice A). This will result in a decrease in the concentration of acetate ion, making choice D incorrect. In addition, since the solution is buffered, it will resist changes in pH, making choices B and C incorrect. 37. Reduction of acetic acid will initially produce which of the following? A. O2(g) B. CO2(g) C. CH3CHO Correct D. CH3CH2OH Explanation: C. Reduction of acetic acid will initially produce the aldehyde given as choice C, where the carbonyl carbon has been reduced from an oxidation state of +3 to +2. Choice D is the result of further reduction to an oxidation state of +1, while choices A and B do not correspond to the reduction of acetic acid. 38. Which of the following equilibria is an example of a buffered solution? A. HCl(aq) H+(aq) + Cl–(aq) B. H 2CO3 (aq) H+(aq) + HCO – Correct 3 Answer C. H2O(aq) H+(aq) + OH–(aq) D. CaCl2(aq) Ca2+(aq) + 2 Cl–(aq) Explanation: B. The passage states that buffered solutions are commonly made with weak acids and their conjugate bases. The only weak acid given is carbonic acid (choice B). HCl (choice A) is a strong acid, water (choice C) is not acidic, and CaCl2 (choice D) is a salt. 39 . A scientist is experimenting with enzymes found in the human body. Of the following, which would make the most appropriate buffer for such work? A. C6H5COOH (Ka = 6.5 x 10–5) B. HClO (Ka = 3.5 x 10–8) Correct C. HCN (Ka = 4.9 x 10–10) D. H3CNH3+ (Ka = 2.2 x 10–11) Explanation: B. The human body has a pH of 7.4. It is best to choose a buffer whose pKa value is close to the pH that one is trying to maintain. Since HClO has a Ka value of 3.5 x 10–8, we know that its pKa is a little less than 8 (in fact, it’s about 7.5). Therefore, of the choices listed, HClO (choice B) would be the best here. 40. Which one of the following plots best illustrates the pH of an acidic buffer solution as it is diluted with H 2O? Explanation: D. As stated in the passage, the pH of a buffer solution depends on the ratio of the concentrations of acid to base, and not their absolute quantities. Therefore, the dilution of the buffer solution should not affect the pH, as shown in choice D. 41. When light moves from air to an unknown medium, its speed decreases to 5/6 of its speed in vacuum. What is the refractive index of this unknown medium? A. 0.83 Correct Answer C. 1.33 D. 1.67 Explanation: B. By definition, the index of refraction of a medium is equal to the factor by which the speed of light decreases (from its speed in vacuum) as it passes through the medium. If the speed of light drops to 5/6 of its speed in vacuum, then it has decreased by a factor of 6/5 = 1.2. 42. Which of the following statements best explains why fiber-optic cables are used instead of copper wiring in real-time data transmission networks? Fiber-optic cables are more malleable than copper wiring, and therefore can be used in smaller spaces. Fiber-optic cables transmit data at Correct B. or near the speed of light, whereas copper wiring does not. Fiber-optic cables can withstand higher temperatures than copper wiring, and thus perform better inside computers. Fiber-optic cables can carry digitally-compressed signals, whereas copper wires carry data as analog signals. Answer Explanation: B. None of choices A, C, or D is mentioned in the passage, but the passage does state that “electromagnetic radiation propagates faster in fiber-optic cables than electrical signals do in copper wiring,” so choice B is best. 43. Fiber-optic cables are now preferred to standard copper wiring for industrial wires because of their superior data transmission properties. Electromagnetic radiation propagates faster in fiber-optic cables than electrical signals do in copper wiring. Furthermore, due to their resistivity, copper wires attenuate signals. If фcrit for a glass–air interface is 42°, which of the following best approximates nglass? (Note: sin 42° = 0.67.) A. 1.25 Correct Answer C. 1.67 D. 1.75 Explanation: B. Using nb = 1 for the index of refraction of air, Snell’s Law gives sin фb = na sin фa. If na sin фa 1, then there is no фb; that is, the beam experiences no refraction (total internal reflection). The cut-off, then, is determined by na sin фa = 1, that is, by nglasssin фcrit = 1, so 44. Which of the following statements best explains why fiber-optic cables are used instead of copper wiring in real-time data transmission networks? Fiber-optic cables are more malleable than copper wiring, and therefore can be used in smaller spaces. Fiber-optic cables transmit data at Correct B. or near the speed of light, whereas copper wiring does not. Fiber-optic cables can withstand higher temperatures than copper wiring, and thus perform better inside computers. Fiber-optic cables can carry digitally-compressed signals, whereas copper wires carry data as analog signals. Answer Explanation: B. None of choices A, C, or D is mentioned in the passage, but the passage does state that “electromagnetic radiation propagates faster in fiber-optic cables than electrical signals do in copper wiring,” so choice B is best. 45. Networks built of copper wiring experience signal degradation. This occurs because copper wires: dissipate some of the electrical A. energy that flows through them as heat. must be surrounded by insulation, B. which interferes with copper’s conduction properties. are often bent in networks, and mechanical deformation of the copper interferes with its conduction properties. experience thermal expansion in hot environments, which adversely affects their conducting ability. Correct Answer Explanation: A. The passage states that “due to their resistivity, copper wires attenuate [i.e., degrade the amplitude of] signals.” Resistivity of a current- carrying component immediately implies dissipation of heat, so choice A is best. 46. constructed of glass with an index of refraction of 1.5. What is the approximate time a signal will take to pass from one end of the cable to the other? A. 2.2 × 10–2 sec B. 5.0 × 10–2 sec Correct C. 2.2 × 10–1 sec D. 5.0 × 10–1 sec Explanation: B. The rate at which light will travel through the glass is v = c / n, where n is the refractive index of the glass. Using the fundamental equation d = vt, we therefore calculate 47. The acidity of hydrogen halides increases as one moves down the periodic table. Which of the following properties of halides is most useful in explaining this trend? A. Boiling point B. Ionic radius Correct C. Density D. Atomic weight Explanation: B. Moving down the periodic table, the ionic radii of the atoms increase. As the ionic radius increases, the stability of the corresponding anion also increases (since the negative charge is distributed over a larger volume). Therefore, since larger halides are more stable as anions, larger hydrogen halides are more likely to undergo deprotonation, and are stronger acids. 48. Measurements of which of the following would be sufficient to calculate the usable work performed by a mechanical engine? The rate at which energy is consumed by the engine and the amount of time the engine was running The heat produced by the engine B. and the amount of time the engine was running The power output of the engine C. and the amount of time the engine was running The energy consumed by the D. engine and the amount of time the engine was running Correct Answer Explanation: C. Power is defined as work divided by time: P = W / t. Therefore, if the power output P and the time t are known, the work performed can be calculated by the equation W = Pt. 49. If the distance between two objects is halved, the force of gravitational attraction between them: A. decreases by a factor of 4 B. decreases by a factor of 2 C. increases by a factor of 2 D. increases by a factor of 4 Correct Explanation: D. Newton’s Law states that gravitation is an inverse-square force. Therefore, if the distance between the two objects decreases by a factor of 2, the gravitational attraction increases by a factor of 22 = 4. 50. Two substances, I and II, of equal mass are heated at the same rate for the same period of time without undergoing a phase change. If the specific heat of Substance I is twice that of Substance II, then the change in temperature after heating will be: A. twice as large in I as in II. B. twice as large in II as in I. Correct C. four times as large in II as in I. D. the same in I as in II. Explanation: B. The specific heat of a substance is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of the substance by one degree. Therefore, if Substance I has a specific heat which is twice that of Substance II, the temperature of Substance I will only be raised by half as much as Substance II after heating for an equivalent time. 51. An object is floating in a fluid of 1.2 specific gravity. If the volume of the fluid displaced by the floating object is 5 × 10–3 m3, what is the object’s mass? A. 2.4 kg B. 4.2 kg C. 6.0 kg Correct Cannot be determined from the information given Explanation: C. Because the object is floating, the object’s weight is balanced by the buoyant force; that is, mg = ρfluidVsubg, or, after canceling the g’s, m = ρfluidVsub. With ρfluid = 1.2ρH2O = 1200 kg/m3 and Vsub = 5 × 10–3 m3, we find that m = ρfluidVsub = (1200 kg/m3)(5 × 10–3 m3) = 6 kg 52. Which one of the following graphs is characteristic of the activity of a radioisotope? Explanation: A. Since the rate of decay is proportional to amount of radioisotope present, the activity A decreases exponentially. (The equation is A = A0e–kt, where k is a constant that is inversely proportional to the half- life.) Graph A best illustrates the shape of an exponential decay curve. 1. Which of the following statements would be most inconsistent with the author’s explanation of the significance of Chekhov’s plays? Chekhov believed that overcoming the seemingly A. mundane challenges of modern life involves a new and unique kind of heroism. Audiences enjoy the plays of Aeschylus and Aristophanes B. in part because of the cathartic experiences those plays provide. Chekhov’s plays celebrate the lives of ordinary men and Corre women by showing the satisfaction to be gained through a good and simple existence. Life in Chekhov’s time was not free of the ills of pestilence, starvation, and war. ct Answ er Explanation: This is a Weaken question. A: No. The author states that Chekhov himself did not necessarily see life as unheroic (beginning of paragraph 3), even though he depicted it as such in his work. Thus this choice is not inconsistent with the author’s depiction of Chekhov’s plays. B: No. While the author argues that modern audiences may experience a more satisfying catharsis through Chekhov’s plays than through traditional tragedies, this does not indicate that older plays offer no catharsis whatsoever. This choice is not inconsistent with the passage. C: Yes. The author claims that Chekhov’s plays portray ordinary life as flat, dull, desperate, and boring (paragraph 3). A statement claiming that he portrayed life as satisfying would thus be inconsistent with the passage. D: No. While the author suggests that life is less characterized by these ills now than in the past, we cannot infer from this that they are absent from the modern (Chekhov’s) era. This choice therefore is not inconsistent with the passage. 2. Suppose that another literary critic were to argue that the lack of melodramatic extremes in Chekhov’s plays makes his characters more compelling and emotionally real. This analysis would: support the author’s contention that Chekhov is similar in style to Plautus and Goethe. neither support nor refute points made in the passage. undermine the author’s claim that Chekhov’s characters lead dull and uneventful lives. reinforce the author’s contrast between writers of tragedy and Chekhov’s drama. Corre ct Answ er Explanation: This is a New Information question. A: No. See the second part of paragraph 3. The author contends the opposite; this answer choice is false in itself. B: No. See the final paragraph. The critic’s analysis would support the author’s claims. C: No. See the final paragraph. The critic’s assertion that there is a lack of melodramatic extremes in Chekhov’s plays supports the author’s claim that Chekhov’s characters lead dull and uneventful lives. D: Yes. See the final paragraph. The author sets up this contrast (beginning of paragraph 4), then explains that the contrast makes Chekhov’s characters more compelling and real. 3. Based on information in the passage, a character in a play by Chekhov would most likely be found: cursing his fate and beseeching the skies. caught up in a series of comic misunderstandings. watering his garden and eating his meals. narrowly escaping disfigurement or death. Explanation: This is an Inference question. Corre ct Answ er A: No. The tragedians portray characters “leading lives of noisy desperation”; Chekhov does not. B: No. The author contrasts comedic plots with Chekhov’s unique dramatic themes; furthermore, Chekhov’s characters lead “apathetic, sluggish and pallid” lives. C: Yes. The author asserts that the characters’ lives are uneventful; watering and eating are part of what the author calls “Chekhovian taedium vitae.” D: No. Chekhov’s characters are “less heroic, less significant” than an average person; narrowly escaping harm would show the opposite. 4. The main idea of this passage is that: Chekhov’s plays are more dramatic than those of earlier writers, such as Aristotle. Chekhov was remarkable for using a dramatic style that realistically emphasized everyday concerns. Chekhov’s characters are C. very likable, despite their flaws. most people lead lives of desperation which do not make interesting plots for plays. Corre ct Answ er Explanation: This is a Main Idea question. A: No. See paragraph 4. The passage asserts that Chekhov’s plays are less dramatic than Aristotle’s plays and other plays of early tragedians. B: Yes. The author argues in the final paragraph that Chekhov offered audiences a “special delight” (and so was “remarkable”) because he portrayed reality in a “new and special sense.” The previous paragraphs describe how this new depiction of reality was founded on dull, everyday events rather than dramatic or comic occurrences. C: No. The passage does not state that Chekhov’s characters are likable. D: No. The author argues that Chekhov’s portrayals of “lives of quiet desperation” make emotionally compelling plots for plays. 5. By “obscurely discerned perceptions,” the author most likely means: vaguely familiar feelings and experiences. depictions of life that inspire Corre ct Answ er B. boredom and despair in the viewer. images that are entirely C. unknown to the common person. delightful stories and characters. Explanation: This is a Vocabulary-in-Context question. A: Yes. In this section of the passage, the author argues that Chekhov’s plays portray a reality of which audiences were not fully aware, but which corresponds to their life experiences. B: No. Chekhov’s plays may portray boredom and despair, but audiences experience delight. C: No. The delight experienced by the audience comes when a reality that was experienced but not fully recognized is exposed to view. If these images were wholly unfamiliar, there would be no delight or catharsis. D: No. While Chekhov’s plays may delight the audience, they do so through stories of boredom and despair. 6. Based on the passage, Chekhov’s dramas were the first to present the audience with: Corre A. uneventful narratives. B. desperate characters. C. cumulative episodes. D. abrupt transitions. Explanation: This is an Inference question. ct Answ er A: Yes. At the end of paragraph three, the author implies that Chekhov was the first dramatist to present human affairs as flat, dull, and uneventful. B: No. There is no indication that this was an innovation of Chekhov's. C: No. There is no indication that this was an innovation of Chekhov's. D: No. There is no indication that this was an innovation of Chekhov's. 7. Which one of the following best exemplifies the types of “negative statements” referred to by the author? Chekhov’s characters lead unsatisfying lives. Startling developments B. rarely occur in Chekhov’s plays. Chekhov’s dramas make use C. of a familiar, depressing formula. Corre ct Answ er Chekhov’s characters are desperate for catharsis. Explanation: This is an Inference question. A: No. The “negative statements” refer to “what does not happen to the characters,” not the “negative” or unsatisfying quality of their lives. After all, a life may be unsatisfying because of tragic things that do happen. B: Yes. Since the “negative statements” refer to “what does not happen to the characters,” we can infer that startling developments do not often occur in the characters’ flat, dull lives. C: No. This is a trap based on the use of the word “depressing”: the formula itself is not “depressing,” it is simply “familiar.” D: No. The audience, not the characters, find catharsis in Chekhov’s themes. 8. Which of the following is NOT listed in the passage as a role of rocks in the ecosystem? Rocks provide minerals to the environment. Rocks can influence weather patterns. Rocks can offer shelter for microscopic organisms. Rocks can act as water channels. Explanation: This is a Retrieval/NOT question. Corre ct Answ er A: No. Rocks provide minerals for soils and sediments. B: No. The hardness of rocks determines an area’s erosion which affects climate. C: Yes. See paragraph 3. Although organisms and rocks have a “dynamic balance” in the ecosystem, the passage does not discuss sheltering organisms in rocks. D: No. Water can flow through rocks. 9. Based on the passage, which of the following best illustrates the mutual influence which the biotic community and the abiotic environment exert on each other? Thermal expansion can cause the weathering and breakdown of rock, which then releases minerals into the soil that affect the soil’s chemical composition. Organisms participate in weathering rocks, and rock B. formations help determine the living conditions for flora and fauna. The nonliving components of any given region exist independent of the living components. The living components of a region produce a diverse web D. of interrelationships that determine the nature of an ecosystem. Corre ct Answ er Explanation: This is an Inference question. A: No. This statement illustrates a relationship between abiotic, not biotic and abiotic elements. B: Yes. This mutual influence involves weathering of rocks and both living and non- living components of the environment. C: No. The passage indicates the opposite. D: No. The “web of interrelationships” is produced by non-living, as well as living, components. 10. It can be inferred from the passage that the rock found in plains is: A. hard. B. soft. C. of varied hardness. D. of uniform hardness. Explanation: This is an Inference question. Corre ct Answ er A: No. See the explanation for D below. B: No. See the explanation for D below. C: No. See the explanation for D below. D: Yes. This two-step answer can be inferred from the passage’s discussion of erosion: soft rocks will be carried away, hard will remain; since a plain is flat, we can conclude that the process of erosion has left rocks of approximately the same hardness. 11. Suppose it were discovered that some rocks are formed by chemical reactions in underground rivers. How would this information relate to the ideas in the passage? It would require the author A. to expand his list of processes of rock formation. It would contradict the B. author’s claims about metamorphic rock. It would support the author’s discussion of water as a medium for chemical weathering. Corre ct Answ er It would be irrelevant to the content of the passage. Explanation: This is a New Information question. A: Yes. The author lists three types of rock formation; the process mentioned in the question stem is not included and would have to be added. B: No. The fact that some rocks are formed by chemical reactions has no relevance to the author’s claims regarding metamorphic rocks, which are formed through alteration of existing rocks. C: No. Chemical weathering is not related to chemical rock formation; they are opposite processes. D: No. See paragraph 1. Information about rock formation is directly relevant to the passage. 12. Some studies have shown that large plateaus in central North America and Asia may have played a significant role in the development of the last ice age. This finding supports which of the following ideas suggested by the passage? The distribution of gross landforms is an important factor in the determination of climate patterns. The susceptibility of rocks to B. erosion determines the landscape of an area. Climate is a factor in C. determining the rate of erosion. Rocks are broken down by weathering which may be physical or chemical in nature. Corre ct Answ er Explanation: This is a New Information question. A: Yes. Since the finding describes the relationship between land formations and climate changes, it supports this claim. B: No. While plateaus may result from erosion, the new information in the question relates to the role of plateaus in climatic changes, not to the process of erosion itself. C: No. Erosion is not directly relevant to the new information in the question. Furthermore, the passage describes how erosion and weathering affect climate, not the other way around. D: No. See the explanation for choice B. Weathering does play a role in the formation of landforms. However, the role of landforms in climate change does not support the idea that rocks are broken down by weathering. 13. Each of the following is illustrated by example or explanation in the passage EXCEPT: the ways in which rocks shape ecosystems. the sources of acid involved in chemical weathering. the types of climatic change C. brought about by rock formations. Corre ct Answ er the processes which weather rocks. Explanation: This is an Evaluate/EXCEPT question. A: No. See paragraph 4. Examples of the results of erosion show some of the ways in which rocks help shape ecosystems. B: No. See paragraph 2. An explanation of the sources of acid involved in chemical weathering includes its three sources: “bacteria, plants, and animals.” C: Yes. See paragraph 4. The passage indicates that rock formations bring about climatic change, but does not explain or give examples of the types of change that occur. D: No. See paragraph 2. Examples of weathering processes include physical and chemical processes. 14. The author uses which of the following to support her criteria for greatness in literature? • Analogy • Citation • Irony A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. I, II, and III Corre ct Answ er Explanation: This is a Evaluate/Roman numeral question. I: True. Analogies the author employs to support her criteria include the singing of a beautiful song and the memories of a melody or a garden. II: True. The author uses a quotation from one of Jewett’s letters to support her point. III: False. “Irony” is the use of words whose intended meaning is the opposite of the usual definition, or sardonic or sarcastic language. The author of the passage does not employ irony; she writes in a straightforward manner. 15. Based on the passage, each of the following is relevant to defining a great work of literature EXCEPT: A. greatness of subject matter. B. authenticity of treatment. C. structure of narrative. D. precision of language. Corre ct Answ er Explanation: This is an Inference/EXCEPT question. A: Yes. Since this is an EXCEPT question, the correct answer will not be found in, or will contradict the passage. The author indicates that the magnitude, or greatness, of the subject matter is not of utmost importance. B: No. In a great work of literature, conceptions of life that haunt the author will be set down on paper “exactly as they are to him”; in other words, in an “authentic,” not artificial, manner. C: No. The author contrasts “fluid and formless” works with great literature, which is “tightly built and significant in design.” Narrative structure then is one factor in the quality of the work. D: No. Precision of language creates a “tightly built” work. 16. Which of the following statements, if shown to be valid, would most undermine the author’s discussion of what constitutes great literature? Some literary critics give A. great praise to highly dramatic and shocking works. The more a writer considers and reworks a literary image, the less likely it is to represent and communicate his or her true feelings, beliefs, and experiences. “Pointed Fir” was poorly received by the public when published, and eventually went out of print. Many literary works based on shapes and scenes which D. have “teased” a writer’s mind for many years fail to achieve literary greatness. Corre ct Answ er Explanation: This is a Weaken question. A: No. The author would disagree with this evaluation, but the fact that “some critics” appear to have a different idea of what constitutes great literature is not enough to undermine the author’s own position. This choice is too wishy-washy to weaken the passage. B: Yes. The author describes how great literature can only come from a long-term process of working with the images that “tease” or persist in an author’s mind. She also states that when an author creates great literature through this process, the author’s very being may be incorporated into that work. If reworking an image or idea made it less likely to represent or communicate the author’s true self, it would weaken the author’s analysis. C: No. The author does not give popularity as a necessary characteristic of great literature. D: No. The author writes that such images create great literature when they “at last get themselves rightly put down,” indicating that working with these images is no guarantee of greatness. 17. One can infer from the second paragraph that “Deephaven,” “Country Byways,” and “Old Friends and New” are: Miss Jewett’s finest compositions. viewed by the author as B. inferior to the work of Miss Jewett’s contemporaries. composed of C. uncharacteristically dramatic subject matter. Corre promising stories by a fledgling writer. Explanation: This is an Inference question. A: No. See paragraph 2. The author ct Answ er indicates that these early books contained the types of first impressions that do not make up true literature, which later became the basis for the more skillfully written “Pointed Fir” stories. B: No. The author does not compare the earlier books to those of Jewett’s contemporaries. C: No. The passage does not indicate that the early books contained dramatic situations. D: Yes. See paragraph 2. The author indicates that Jewett’s earlier books contained the promising beginnings of what later became “almost flawless examples of literary art.” 18. The author believes that the works of authors contemporary to Miss Jewett: transcend time even though A. the subject matter is elaborate. are not interesting to today’s B. readers because the subject matter is dull. C. are true literary works. have lost much of their original appeal. Explanation: This is an Inference question. A: No. See paragraph 3. Jewett’s Corre ct Answ er contemporaries wrote books that are not interesting to reread today; that is, they do not transcend time. B: No. See paragraph 3. The works of her contemporaries are more exciting and eventful; however, they are not interesting today because they lack “inherent, individual beauty.” C: No. See paragraph 3. The other authors’ works lack “inherent, individual beauty,” the primary trait of a true literary work. D: Yes. See paragraph 3. The works of Jewett’s contemporaries are not interesting to read and reread today, and therefore have lost their original appeal. 19. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements about artists? Corre A. Most of what they produce is ct not true art. Their most important gift is imagination. Their minds are “teased” for Answ er C. years by the criticisms they receive. They are more sympathetic than the average person. Explanation: This is an Inference question. A: Yes. See paragraph 3. The author indicates that most writing is not of the quality that Jewett’s work achieves; furthermore, she suggests that even the best authors produce relatively little in their lifetimes that is true art. B: No. See paragraph 3. The author suggests that even less-talented writers can use their imaginations to write “a brilliant sham”; imagination is clearly not a writer’s most important gift. C: No. See paragraph 1. Writers’ minds are “teased” not by criticisms, but by ideas that recur for years before being written down. D: No. See paragraph 5. This is a trap based on the use of the word “sympathy”; writers must have sympathy toward their material in order to “achieve anything noble.” 20. Some modern historians argue that accounts written by Chinese scholars in the 17th and 18th centuries provide a complete foundation on which to base analyses of Chinese dynastic politics of those times. Which of the following statements, if true, would most likely cause these historians to amend this claim? Before the 20th century, Chinese history was often written in order to guide political decision-making. The Manchu conquest in the mid-17th century had a significant effect on Chinese political practices. Newly discovered archeological evidence suggests that Chinese civilization has been less continuous than previously believed. The need to prevent or quell popular rebellion against the D. ruling class played a major role in political policymaking in 18th-century China. Corre ct Answ er Explanation: This is a New Information question. A: No. This claim, which is made in the passage, gives no reason to suspect that these accounts would be incomplete or misleading. B: No. As in choice A, this statement is not inconsistent. There is no reason given to believe that the scholars’ accounts would not include, or would misrepresent, the Manchu influence. C: No. This is the right answer to the wrong question. This undermines the claim made in paragraph 1, but has no direct relevance to the validity of the modern historians’ or the Chinese scholars’ work. D: Yes. The author states that Chinese historians before the 20th century paid little attention to “developments among commoners” (paragraph 2). If those developments included rebellious activity or threats that significantly shaped the political and court history written by Chinese scholars, this would indicate that their histories are at best incomplete. 21. Suppose that the Manchus, as a race, have completely disappeared since 1700. This evidence would most support the claim that: the biggest threats to A. Chinese security have come from the north. the Chinese permanently B. affected people beyond their borders. all foreign rulers in China C. came from less developed societies. the Chinese have a great capacity for absorbing foreign groups from surrounding areas. Corre ct Answ er Explanation: This is a New Information question. A: No. Although the Chinese developed this perception in history, this fact would not explain the disappearance of the Manchus. B: No. Although it may be true, this fact would not explain the disappearance of the Manchus. C: No. This fact would not explain the disappearance of the Manchus. D: Yes. This claim would explain why the Manchus have disappeared: they became absorbed into the culture of the Chinese, intermarried, and lost their ethnic identity as Manchus. 22. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the claim that the Chinese see themselves as being surrounded on all sides by barbarian peoples? Several of the surrounding A. peoples failed to adopt Chinese written language. Western civilization has developed completely isolated from Chinese civilization. The Chinese have been C. conquered by culturally inferior people for centuries. The name “Middle Kingdom” actually refers to an ancient Chinese god who resided “in the middle of all things.” Corre ct Answ er Explanation: This is a Strengthen question. A: No. This answer choice would not strengthen the claim that barbarian peoples surround the Chinese, in part because it implies that some of those peoples actually did learn the Chinese written language. B: No. This answer choice is unrelated to the claim made in the question stem. C: Yes. See the last paragraph. By being conquered by groups with demonstrably lower cultural standards, the Chinese developed the idea that they were surrounded on all sides by barbarian peoples. D: No. This fact would not explain the idea that the Chinese felt others were barbarians. 23. Which of the following would be least likely to support the statements made by the author in this passage? Archeological evidence that China was invaded by Mongols during the thirteenth century A study that shows that China had been the most populated region of Asia for the last 3,300 years An analysis of unique C. Chinese technological developments Evidence that most Chinese D. today do not understand the rich tradition of their culture Corre ct Answ er Explanation: This is a Strengthen/LEAST question. A: No. Evidence would support the claim that the Mongols invaded in the thirteenth century. B: No. This study would support the claim made in the passage about the large population of China. C: No. This analysis would support the claim made in the passage that the Chinese developed successful technology. D: Yes. Evidence that most Chinese today do not understand their tradition would contradict the claims made in the last paragraph, especially that their ethnocentric world view arose from a sense of superior cultural standards. 24. The main idea of the passage is that: the theory that emotions can cause cancer is commonly supported in the scientific literature. in opposition to what was believed in the 19th and B. early 20th century, the cause of tuberculosis is biological, not psychological. despite much popular and scientific opinion, there is no such thing as a “cancer personality.” Corre ct Answ er there is no link between emotions and health. Explanation: This is a Main Idea question. A: No. The author makes this statement. However, she spends the rest of the passage debunking or refuting this theory. B: No. This choice refers only to the author’s argument in paragraph 4. It is too narrow to be the main idea of the passage. C: Yes. The passage as a whole, including the discussion of tuberculosis, is intended to invalidate the argument that certain emotions or character traits can cause cancer. D: No. This choice is too extreme. The author admits that emotions such as distress may affect our immunological responses. It is also too general; the focus of the author is on cancer (and on TB to the extent that it relates to current ideas about cancer), not all aspects of health. 25. Which of the following could most plausibly explain why Sir Astley Cooper believed that grief and anxiety cause cancer, while remaining consistent with the author’s own beliefs as they are presented in the passage? Cooper encountered many women with cheerful dispositions who did not have breast cancer. Cooper’s cancer patients B. were poor women living in Corre ct unusually toxic environments. Answ er Cooper’s breast cancer C. patients exhibited a wide variety of emotional states. Cooper noted that 62% of patients with breast cancer reported high levels of pre- diagnosis anxiety and grief, compared to 27% of women diagnosed with liver disease. Explanation: This is a Strengthen question. A: No. Any statement accepting the role of emotions in causing cancer will be inconsistent with the author’s position. Furthermore, it would not be plausible to infer that anxiety causes cancer just because some happy people do not have cancer (the people with cancer could also be cheerful). B: Yes. If Cooper’s subjects for the study lived in unusually toxic environments, then it is quite possible that the toxicity (not their anxiety) gave them breast cancer. Furthermore, a physiological (toxicity) explanation would be consistent with the author’s argument that emotions do not cause cancer. C: No. This answer choice would contradict Cooper's finding that grief and anxiety cause breast cancer. D: No. This statement is consistent with Cooper’s hypothesis, but inconsistent with the author’s argument in the passage. 26. The author’s reference to “the human condition” relates to her belief that: it is the cancer that causes A. depression, not depression that causes cancer. everyone who has B. experienced trauma is likely to become ill. human life is inherently depressing. the emotional lives of cancer Corre D. patients may be unexceptional. ct Answ er Explanation: This is a Structure question. A: No. The author argues that almost everybody, not just those with cancer, will at some point be depressed or anxious. She does not, however, argue that the correlation shown between depression and cancer arises from reverse causality, i.e., that cancer causes people to be more depressed. (Be careful to base your answers only on the passage, not on “common sense”.) B: No. The author asserts that many people who have experienced trauma have not become ill. C: No. The author only suggests that, as humans, we experience depressing emotions and past traumas, not that our lives are intrinsically depressing in general. D: Yes. The author suggests that all humans have these same emotional states, not only cancer patients. 27. Which of the following findings, if accurate, would most undermine the author’s argument made by the following statement: “Needless to say, the hypothesis that distress can affect immunological responsiveness (and, in some circumstances, lower immunity to disease) is hardly the same as—or constitutes evidence for—the view that emotions cause diseases, much less for the belief that specific emotions can produce specific diseases.” Seventy-five percent of people suffering from A. pancreatic cancer also show high levels of anxiety and depression. When Kafka wrote that mental illness was the cause of his TB, he was speaking metaphorically, not literally. Intense anger often releases unusually high levels of the hormone cortisol into the C. bloodstream, which in turn makes a person more susceptible to the TB bacillus. A genetic mutation has been discovered that increases D. the likelihood of suffering both from depression and from breast cancer. Corre ct Answ er Explanation: This is a Weaken question. A: No. This statement is not inconsistent with the author’s argument that emotions do not cause disease. She argues in the first paragraph that most people with or without cancer experience anxiety or depression, and that a correlation between cancer and depression therefore is meaningless (i.e., there is probably just as strong a correl