NCLEX-PN Test Prep Questions and Answers with Explanations V2 PRACTICE EXAM 1 (STUDY MODE)

NCLEX-PN Test Prep Questions and Answers with Explanations V2 PRACTICE EXAM 1 (STUDY MODE) 2020/2021 NCLEX-PN Test Prep Questions and Answers with Explanations V2 PRACTICE EXAM 1 (STUDY MODE) 1. A papular lesion is noted on the perineum of the laboring client. Which initial action is most appropriate? A. Document the finding B. Report the finding to the doctor C. Prepare the client for a C-section D. Continue primary care as prescribed Answer B: Any lesion should be reported to the doctor. This can indicate a herpes lesion. Clients with open lesions related to herpes are delivered by Cesarean section because there is a possibility of transmission of the infection to the fetus with direct contact to lesions. It is not enough to document the finding, so answer A is incorrect. The physician must make the decision to perform a C-section, making answer C incorrect. It is not enough to continue primary care, so answer D is incorrect. 2. A client with a diagnosis of human papillomavirus (HPV) is at risk for which of the following? A. Lymphoma B. Cervical and vaginal cancer C. Leukemia D. Systemic lupus Answer B: The client with HPV is at higher risk for cervical and vaginal cancer related to this STI. She is not at higher risk for the other cancers mentioned in answers A, C, and D, so those are incorrect. 3. The client seen in the family planning clinic tells the nurse that she has a painful lesion on the perineum. The nurse is aware that the most likely source of the lesion is: A. Syphilis B. Herpes C. Candidiasis D. Condylomata Answer B: A lesion that is painful is most likely a herpetic lesion. A chancre lesion associated with syphilis is not painful, so answer A is incorrect. In answer C, candidiasis is a yeast infection and does not present with a lesion, but it is exhibited by a white, cheesy discharge. Condylomata lesions are painless warts, so answer D is incorrect. 4. A client visiting a family planning clinic is suspected of having an STI. The most diagnostic test for treponema pallidum is: A. Venereal Disease Research Lab (VDRL) B. Rapid plasma reagin (RPR) C. Florescent treponemal antibody (FTA) D. Thayer-Martin culture (TMC) Answer C: FTA is the only answer choice for treponema pallidum. Answers A and B are incorrect because VDRL and RPR are screening tests for syphilis but are not conclusive of the disease; they only indicate exposure to the disease. The Thayer-Martin culture is a test for gonorrhea, so answer D is incorrect. 5. Which laboratory finding is associated with HELLP syndrome in the obstetric client? A. Elevated blood glucose B. Elevated platelet count C. Elevated creatinine clearance D. Elevated hepatic enzymes Answer D: The criteria for HELLP is hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. In answer A, an elevated blood glucose level is not associated with HELLP. Platelets are decreased in HELLP syndrome, not