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NURS 6630 FINAL EXAM WITH ANSWERS (75 OUT OF 75)

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NURS 6630 FINAL EXAM WITH ANSWERS (75 OUT OF 75) • Question 1 0 out of 0 points When completing this exam, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? Selected Answer: Yes • Question 2 1 out of 1 points The PMHNP understands that slow-dose extended release stimulants are most appropriate for which patient with ADHD? Selected Answer: c. 8-year-old patient • Question 3 1 out of 1 points Jordan is diagnosed with obsessive compulsive disorder. He has been trialed on several different SSRIs and is currently on high dose sertraline. He reports an inability to carry out responsibilities because of an obsession with handwashing. Which is the best treatment option for Jordan? Selected Answer: a. Maintain the same dose of sertraline and add quetiapine • Question 4 1 out of 1 points The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association with aggressive behaviors in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a standard dose of atypical antipsychotics? Selected Answer: c. The doses are based on achieving 60% D2 receptor occupancy. • Question 5 1 out of 1 points A 72-year-old male patient is in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease. The PMHNP determines that improving memory is a key consideration in selecting a medication. Which of the following would be an appropriate choice? Selected Answer: c. All of these are correct • Question 6 1 out of 1 points A 71-year-old male patient comes to an appointment with his 65-year-old wife. They are both having concerns related to her memory and ability to recognize faces. The PMNHP is considering prescribing memantine (Namenda) based on the following symptoms: Selected Answer: c. Amnesia, apraxia, agnosia • Question 7 1 out of 1 points The PMHNP is working with the student to care for a patient with diabetic peripheral neuropathic pain. The student asks the PMHNP why SSRIs are not consistently useful in treating this particular patient’s pain. What is the best response by the PMHNP? Selected Answer: b. “SSRIs only increase serotonin levels.” • Question 8 1 out of 1 points The PMHNP is caring for a patient who openly admitted to drinking a quart of vodka daily. Prior to prescribing this patient disulfiram (Antabuse), it is important for the PMHNP to: Selected Answer: b. Evaluate the patient’s willingness to abstain from alcohol • Question 9 0 out of 1 points The PMHNP is meeting with the parents of an 8-year-old patient who is receiving an initial prescription for D-amphetamine. The PMHNP demonstrates appropriate prescribing practices when she prescribes the following dose: Selected Answer: a. The child will take 10–40 mg, daily. • Question 10 1 out of 1 points The PMHNP is assessing a patient who will be receiving phentermine + topiramate combination (QSYMIA). QSYMIA would be contraindicated in which patient? Selected Answer: d. A 37-year-old female that is being treated with phenelzine

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NURS 6630 FINAL EXAM WITH ANSWERS (75 OUT
OF 75)
 Question 1
0 out of 0 points
When completing this exam, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of
Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity?
Selected Ye
Answer: s
 Question 2
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP understands that slow-dose extended release
stimulants are most appropriate for which patient with ADHD?

Selected c.
Answer: 8-year-old
patient
 Question 3
1 out of 1 points
Jordan is diagnosed with obsessive compulsive disorder. He has
been trialed on several different SSRIs and is currently on high
dose sertraline. He reports an inability to carry out responsibilities
because of an obsession with handwashing. Which is the best
treatment option for Jordan?
Selected a.
Answer: Maintain the same dose of sertraline and add
quetiapine
 Question 4
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its
association with aggressive behaviors in patients with the
student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a standard dose of
atypical antipsychotics?

Selected c.
Answer: The doses are based on achieving 60% D2 receptor
occupancy.
 Question 5

, 1 out of 1 points
A 72-year-old male patient is in the early stages of Alzheimer’s
disease. The PMHNP determines that improving memory is a key
consideration in selecting a medication. Which of the following
would be an appropriate choice?

Selected c.
Answer: All of these are
correct
 Question 6
1 out of 1 points
A 71-year-old male patient comes to an appointment with his 65-
year-old wife. They are both having concerns related to her
memory and ability to recognize faces. The PMNHP is considering
prescribing memantine (Namenda) based on the following
symptoms:

Selected c.
Answer: Amnesia, apraxia,
agnosia
 Question 7
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is working with the student to care for a patient with
diabetic peripheral neuropathic pain. The student asks the PMHNP
why SSRIs are not consistently useful in treating this particular
patient’s pain. What is the best response by the PMHNP?

Selected b.
Answer: “SSRIs only increase serotonin
levels.”
 Question 8
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who openly admitted to drinking
a quart of vodka daily. Prior to prescribing this patient disulfiram
(Antabuse), it is important for the PMHNP to:
Selected b.
Answer: Evaluate the patient’s willingness to abstain
from alcohol
 Question 9

, 0 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is meeting with the parents of an 8-year-old patient
who is receiving an initial prescription for D-amphetamine. The
PMHNP demonstrates appropriate prescribing practices when she
prescribes the following dose:

Selected a.
Answer: The child will take 10–40 mg,
daily.
 Question 10
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is assessing a patient who will be receiving
phentermine + topiramate combination (QSYMIA). QSYMIA would
be contraindicated in which patient?

Selected d.
Answer: A 37-year-old female that is being treated with
phenelzine
 Question 11
0 out of 1 points
Jacob is a 7-year-old pediatric patient who has significant
oppositional symptoms associated with his ADHD diagnosis. What
is the best treatment for this patient?

Selected b.
Answer: Prescribe a methylphenidate
alone.
 Question 12
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is attempting to treat a patient’s chronic pain by
having the agent bind the open channel conformation of VSCCs to
block those channels with a “use-dependent” form of inhibition.
Which agent will the PMHNP most likely select?

Selected c.
Answer: Pregabalin
(Lyrica)
 Question 13
1 out of 1 points

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Uploaded on
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Written in
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