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KAPLAN DIAGNOSTIC COMPLETE EXAM VERIFIED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

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KAPLAN DIAGNOSTIC COMPLETE EXAM VERIFIED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

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KAPLAN DIAGNOSTIC COMPLETE
EXAM VERIFIED QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS



1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. The nurse should prioritize

which assessment?

A. Blood pressure monitoring


B. Daily weights


C. Neurological checks


D. Urine output


Answer: A


Conceptual Explanation: Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal medulla that

secretes catecholamines, causing severe hypertension. Monitoring blood pressure is the

priority to prevent hypertensive crisis.


2. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. The nurse notes continuous bubbling in the

water-seal chamber. Which action should the nurse take first?

A. Check for a leak in the system


B. Increase the suction pressure

,C. Document this as a normal finding


D. Clamp the chest tube immediately


Answer: A


Conceptual Explanation: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air

leak. The nurse must check the system to locate and address the leak. Intermittent bubbling

is normal during expiration or coughing.


3. The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which laboratory

value would require the nurse to hold the medication?

A. Serum sodium of 138 mEq/L


B. Serum magnesium of 2.0 mEq/L


C. Serum calcium of 9.5 mg/dL


D. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L


Answer: D


Conceptual Explanation: Hypokalemia (potassium < 3.5 mEq/L) increases the risk of

digoxin toxicity. The nurse should hold the dose and notify the provider.


4. A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which assessment finding

indicates magnesium toxicity?

A. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes


B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute

, C. Urinary output of 50 mL/hr


D. Blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg


Answer: B


Conceptual Explanation: Signs of magnesium toxicity include respiratory depression

(<12/min), loss of deep tendon reflexes, and oliguria.


5. A client with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is found unconscious with a blood glucose of 40

mg/dL. Which medication should the nurse expect to administer?

A. Glucagon intramuscularly


B. Regular insulin subcutaneously


C. Glyburide orally


D. Metformin orally


Answer: A


Conceptual Explanation: For a severe hypoglycemic event in an unconscious client

without IV access, Glucagon IM or SQ is the emergency treatment of choice.


6. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect in a client diagnosed with Cushing’s

syndrome?

A. Weight loss and hypotension


B. Excessive thirst and dilute urine


C. Hyperpigmentation and tachycardia

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