NUR 611 ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM REVIEW
1. Which cellular adaptation is characterized by the replacement of one mature cell type by
another, often less differentiated, cell type?
A. Metaplasia
B. Atrophy
C. Hyperplasia
D. Dysplasia
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one mature cell by
another, usually in response to chronic irritation, such as the change in bronchial lining due
to smoking.
2. A patient presents with severe hyperkalemia. Which physiological change occurs to the
resting membrane potential (RMP)?
A. RMP becomes more negative (hyperpolarized)
B. RMP remains unchanged
C. RMP becomes less negative (hypopolarized)
,D. Threshold potential decreases
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Hyperkalemia increases the extracellular concentration of
potassium, which reduces the concentration gradient, causing the RMP to become more
positive or ‘hypopolarized,’ making the cell more excitable.
3. Which genetic disorder is characterized by a triplet repeat expansion (CAG) and follows an
autosomal dominant inheritance pattern?
A. Cystic Fibrosis
B. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
C. Huntington Disease
D. Sickle Cell Anemia
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Huntington Disease is an autosomal dominant
neurodegenerative disorder caused by an abnormally long expansion of the CAG repeat in
the HTT gene.
4. In the process of oncogenesis, what is the primary role of tumor suppressor genes like
TP53?
A. Promotion of angiogenesis
B. Repairing DNA or inducing apoptosis
, C. Activation of telomerase
D. Accelerating the cell cycle
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Tumor suppressor genes normally inhibit cell proliferation; p53
specifically monitors DNA integrity and induces apoptosis if DNA damage is irreparable.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is a common complication of Syndrome of Inappropriate
Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH)?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: SIADH leads to excessive water reabsorption in the kidneys,
resulting in dilutional hyponatremia.
6. What is the primary mechanism behind the autoimmune destruction in Type 1 Diabetes
Mellitus?
A. Antibody-mediated blockade of insulin receptors
B. T-cell mediated destruction of pancreatic beta cells
C. Excessive glucagon production by alpha cells
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM REVIEW
1. Which cellular adaptation is characterized by the replacement of one mature cell type by
another, often less differentiated, cell type?
A. Metaplasia
B. Atrophy
C. Hyperplasia
D. Dysplasia
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one mature cell by
another, usually in response to chronic irritation, such as the change in bronchial lining due
to smoking.
2. A patient presents with severe hyperkalemia. Which physiological change occurs to the
resting membrane potential (RMP)?
A. RMP becomes more negative (hyperpolarized)
B. RMP remains unchanged
C. RMP becomes less negative (hypopolarized)
,D. Threshold potential decreases
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Hyperkalemia increases the extracellular concentration of
potassium, which reduces the concentration gradient, causing the RMP to become more
positive or ‘hypopolarized,’ making the cell more excitable.
3. Which genetic disorder is characterized by a triplet repeat expansion (CAG) and follows an
autosomal dominant inheritance pattern?
A. Cystic Fibrosis
B. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
C. Huntington Disease
D. Sickle Cell Anemia
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Huntington Disease is an autosomal dominant
neurodegenerative disorder caused by an abnormally long expansion of the CAG repeat in
the HTT gene.
4. In the process of oncogenesis, what is the primary role of tumor suppressor genes like
TP53?
A. Promotion of angiogenesis
B. Repairing DNA or inducing apoptosis
, C. Activation of telomerase
D. Accelerating the cell cycle
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Tumor suppressor genes normally inhibit cell proliferation; p53
specifically monitors DNA integrity and induces apoptosis if DNA damage is irreparable.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is a common complication of Syndrome of Inappropriate
Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH)?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: SIADH leads to excessive water reabsorption in the kidneys,
resulting in dilutional hyponatremia.
6. What is the primary mechanism behind the autoimmune destruction in Type 1 Diabetes
Mellitus?
A. Antibody-mediated blockade of insulin receptors
B. T-cell mediated destruction of pancreatic beta cells
C. Excessive glucagon production by alpha cells
