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NURS 305 Pharmacology Final EXAM WITH 250
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED SOLUTIONS WITH
RATIONALES LATEST UPDATED VERSION THIS YEAR
2026-2027
NURS 305 Pharmacology Final Exam - 300 Questions
STARTING FROM QUESTION 1 THROUGH 300
QUESTION 1
A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which assessment finding is most indicative of
digoxin toxicity?
A) Heart rate of 72 beats per minute
B) Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
C) Visual disturbances with yellow halos around lights
D) Increased urine output
Answer: C
Visual disturbances, particularly yellow-green halos around lights, are classic signs of digoxin
toxicity. Therapeutic digoxin levels are 0.8-2.0 ng/mL, and risk of toxicity increases with
hypokalemia (potassium below 3.5 mEq/L). Bradycardia (not 72 bpm) would also be a concern.
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QUESTION 2
A nurse is preparing to administer an opioid analgesic. Which assessment is most important to
perform before administration?
A) Pain level
B) Respiratory rate
C) Blood pressure
D) Level of consciousness
Answer: B
Respiratory rate is the most critical assessment before administering opioids, as respiratory
depression is the most serious side effect. While pain level and blood pressure are important,
respiratory depression can be life-threatening and requires baseline assessment and ongoing
monitoring.
QUESTION 3
A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The client develops a persistent dry cough.
Which action should the nurse take?
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A) Discontinue the medication immediately
B) Notify the healthcare provider about the cough
C) Instruct the client to take an over-the-counter cough suppressant
D) Reassure the client that the cough will resolve on its own
Answer: B
A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors due to bradykinin accumulation.
The healthcare provider should be notified because the medication may need to be changed to
an ARB. The client should not discontinue the medication without provider guidance.
QUESTION 4
Which statement about drug effectiveness is most accurate?
A) Effectiveness is the least important property of a drug
B) Effectiveness means the drug does what it is intended to do
C) Effectiveness refers to the drug's safety profile
D) Effectiveness is determined by the route of administration
Answer: B
Effectiveness is the most important property of a drug—it must do what it is intended to do. A
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drug that is not effective, regardless of its safety or other properties, serves no therapeutic
purpose.
QUESTION 5
A client is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate
therapeutic effectiveness?
A) aPTT
B) INR
C) Platelet count
D) Serum creatinine
Answer: B
INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the laboratory test used to monitor warfarin therapy. The
therapeutic INR for atrial fibrillation is typically 2.0-3.0. aPTT is used for heparin, and platelet
count is monitored for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.
QUESTION 6
The nurse is administering a medication via the subcutaneous route. Which needle length is
NURS 305 Pharmacology Final EXAM WITH 250
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED SOLUTIONS WITH
RATIONALES LATEST UPDATED VERSION THIS YEAR
2026-2027
NURS 305 Pharmacology Final Exam - 300 Questions
STARTING FROM QUESTION 1 THROUGH 300
QUESTION 1
A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which assessment finding is most indicative of
digoxin toxicity?
A) Heart rate of 72 beats per minute
B) Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
C) Visual disturbances with yellow halos around lights
D) Increased urine output
Answer: C
Visual disturbances, particularly yellow-green halos around lights, are classic signs of digoxin
toxicity. Therapeutic digoxin levels are 0.8-2.0 ng/mL, and risk of toxicity increases with
hypokalemia (potassium below 3.5 mEq/L). Bradycardia (not 72 bpm) would also be a concern.
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QUESTION 2
A nurse is preparing to administer an opioid analgesic. Which assessment is most important to
perform before administration?
A) Pain level
B) Respiratory rate
C) Blood pressure
D) Level of consciousness
Answer: B
Respiratory rate is the most critical assessment before administering opioids, as respiratory
depression is the most serious side effect. While pain level and blood pressure are important,
respiratory depression can be life-threatening and requires baseline assessment and ongoing
monitoring.
QUESTION 3
A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The client develops a persistent dry cough.
Which action should the nurse take?
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A) Discontinue the medication immediately
B) Notify the healthcare provider about the cough
C) Instruct the client to take an over-the-counter cough suppressant
D) Reassure the client that the cough will resolve on its own
Answer: B
A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors due to bradykinin accumulation.
The healthcare provider should be notified because the medication may need to be changed to
an ARB. The client should not discontinue the medication without provider guidance.
QUESTION 4
Which statement about drug effectiveness is most accurate?
A) Effectiveness is the least important property of a drug
B) Effectiveness means the drug does what it is intended to do
C) Effectiveness refers to the drug's safety profile
D) Effectiveness is determined by the route of administration
Answer: B
Effectiveness is the most important property of a drug—it must do what it is intended to do. A
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drug that is not effective, regardless of its safety or other properties, serves no therapeutic
purpose.
QUESTION 5
A client is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate
therapeutic effectiveness?
A) aPTT
B) INR
C) Platelet count
D) Serum creatinine
Answer: B
INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the laboratory test used to monitor warfarin therapy. The
therapeutic INR for atrial fibrillation is typically 2.0-3.0. aPTT is used for heparin, and platelet
count is monitored for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.
QUESTION 6
The nurse is administering a medication via the subcutaneous route. Which needle length is
