Recent FNP Boards 350 Questions and Correct
Verified Answers | Latest Review
ANCC FNP Board Exam Overview
The American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) Family Nurse Practitioner
Board Certification Exam consists of 175 questions (150 scored, 25
pretest/unscored) with a 3.5-hour time limit and a passing score of a scaled 350 .
The exam covers:
Content Area Percentage
Assessment 19%
Diagnosis 19%
Clinical Management 22%
Pharmacotherapeutics 13%
Health Promotion & Maintenance 13%
Professional Role 9%
Ethics, Legal, & Policy 5%
The AANPCB and ANCC are the two certifying bodies for the FNP exam .
,SECTION A: HEALTH PROMOTION AND DISEASE PREVENTION
(Questions 1-50)
Question 1: A 45-year-old male with a BMI of 34 kg/m² and no other
comorbidities presents for a routine physical. What is the most appropriate initial
management for his obesity?
A) Recommend a low-calorie diet and exercise only
B) Start phentermine
C) Start semaglutide
D) Discuss lifestyle modification and consider pharmacotherapy
Correct Answer: D) Discuss lifestyle modification and consider pharmacotherapy
Rationale: Current obesity guidelines recommend lifestyle modification as first-
line therapy. Pharmacotherapy (semaglutide, phentermine-topiramate) may be
considered in patients with BMI ≥30 or ≥27 with comorbidities after discussing
risks and benefits .
Question 2: A 65-year-old female with no history of cardiovascular disease has a
10-year ASCVD risk score of 12%. According to current guidelines, when should
statin therapy be initiated?
A) Immediately regardless of LDL
B) If LDL ≥70 mg/dL
C) If LDL ≥100 mg/dL
D) If LDL ≥130 mg/dL
Correct Answer: A) Immediately regardless of LDL
Rationale: For patients with ASCVD risk ≥7.5%, statin therapy is recommended.
Risk assessment guides shared decision-making; lifestyle modifications should
also be initiated .
Question 3: A patient with hypertension reports adherence to lisinopril 20 mg
daily, but blood pressure remains 148/92 mmHg. What is the most appropriate
next step?
A) Increase lisinopril to 40 mg
B) Add hydrochlorothiazide
, C) Add amlodipine
D) Switch to losartan
Correct Answer: B) Add hydrochlorothiazide
Rationale: For patients not at goal on monotherapy, adding a thiazide diuretic is a
recommended second step. Black patients without comorbidities may benefit
from thiazide or CCB as initial therapy .
Question 4: A patient with a history of depression has been on sertraline 200 mg
daily for 6 weeks with no improvement. According to STAR*D trial results, what is
the most appropriate next step?
A) Switch to a different SSRI
B) Augment with bupropion
C) Augment with aripiprazole
D) Switch to venlafaxine
Correct Answer: B) Augment with bupropion
Rationale: In STAR*D, after failure of first SSRI, augmentation with bupropion was
effective. Switching to another SSRI or SNRI is an option but augmentation with
bupropion is a common next step. Aripiprazole is used for augmentation after
more failures .
Question 5: A patient with atrial fibrillation and a creatinine clearance of 35
mL/min requires anticoagulation. Which agent is most appropriate with a dose
adjustment?
A) Rivaroxaban 15 mg daily
B) Apixaban 5 mg twice daily
C) Warfarin with INR target 2-3
D) Edoxaban 30 mg daily
Correct Answer: B) Apixaban 5 mg twice daily
Rationale: Apixaban is preferred in moderate renal impairment (CrCl 25-30) with
standard dosing; rivaroxaban requires reduction to 15 mg daily. Warfarin is
effective but not the most convenient. Edoxaban is not recommended for CrCl
<15 mL/min .
Verified Answers | Latest Review
ANCC FNP Board Exam Overview
The American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) Family Nurse Practitioner
Board Certification Exam consists of 175 questions (150 scored, 25
pretest/unscored) with a 3.5-hour time limit and a passing score of a scaled 350 .
The exam covers:
Content Area Percentage
Assessment 19%
Diagnosis 19%
Clinical Management 22%
Pharmacotherapeutics 13%
Health Promotion & Maintenance 13%
Professional Role 9%
Ethics, Legal, & Policy 5%
The AANPCB and ANCC are the two certifying bodies for the FNP exam .
,SECTION A: HEALTH PROMOTION AND DISEASE PREVENTION
(Questions 1-50)
Question 1: A 45-year-old male with a BMI of 34 kg/m² and no other
comorbidities presents for a routine physical. What is the most appropriate initial
management for his obesity?
A) Recommend a low-calorie diet and exercise only
B) Start phentermine
C) Start semaglutide
D) Discuss lifestyle modification and consider pharmacotherapy
Correct Answer: D) Discuss lifestyle modification and consider pharmacotherapy
Rationale: Current obesity guidelines recommend lifestyle modification as first-
line therapy. Pharmacotherapy (semaglutide, phentermine-topiramate) may be
considered in patients with BMI ≥30 or ≥27 with comorbidities after discussing
risks and benefits .
Question 2: A 65-year-old female with no history of cardiovascular disease has a
10-year ASCVD risk score of 12%. According to current guidelines, when should
statin therapy be initiated?
A) Immediately regardless of LDL
B) If LDL ≥70 mg/dL
C) If LDL ≥100 mg/dL
D) If LDL ≥130 mg/dL
Correct Answer: A) Immediately regardless of LDL
Rationale: For patients with ASCVD risk ≥7.5%, statin therapy is recommended.
Risk assessment guides shared decision-making; lifestyle modifications should
also be initiated .
Question 3: A patient with hypertension reports adherence to lisinopril 20 mg
daily, but blood pressure remains 148/92 mmHg. What is the most appropriate
next step?
A) Increase lisinopril to 40 mg
B) Add hydrochlorothiazide
, C) Add amlodipine
D) Switch to losartan
Correct Answer: B) Add hydrochlorothiazide
Rationale: For patients not at goal on monotherapy, adding a thiazide diuretic is a
recommended second step. Black patients without comorbidities may benefit
from thiazide or CCB as initial therapy .
Question 4: A patient with a history of depression has been on sertraline 200 mg
daily for 6 weeks with no improvement. According to STAR*D trial results, what is
the most appropriate next step?
A) Switch to a different SSRI
B) Augment with bupropion
C) Augment with aripiprazole
D) Switch to venlafaxine
Correct Answer: B) Augment with bupropion
Rationale: In STAR*D, after failure of first SSRI, augmentation with bupropion was
effective. Switching to another SSRI or SNRI is an option but augmentation with
bupropion is a common next step. Aripiprazole is used for augmentation after
more failures .
Question 5: A patient with atrial fibrillation and a creatinine clearance of 35
mL/min requires anticoagulation. Which agent is most appropriate with a dose
adjustment?
A) Rivaroxaban 15 mg daily
B) Apixaban 5 mg twice daily
C) Warfarin with INR target 2-3
D) Edoxaban 30 mg daily
Correct Answer: B) Apixaban 5 mg twice daily
Rationale: Apixaban is preferred in moderate renal impairment (CrCl 25-30) with
standard dosing; rivaroxaban requires reduction to 15 mg daily. Warfarin is
effective but not the most convenient. Edoxaban is not recommended for CrCl
<15 mL/min .
