REX-PN EXAMINATION COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND DETAILED SOLUTIONS LATEST
UPDATE THIS YEAR JUST RELEASED
Question 1
A nurse is assessing a client with schizophrenia and notes the presence of "alogia." Which of the
following best describes this finding?
A) The client reports hearing voices that are not there.
B) The client shows a significant decrease in the quantity and fluency of thought and speech.
C) The client is unable to sit still and is constantly pacing.
D) The client expresses a lack of motivation to complete basic self-care.
E) The client believes they have special powers given by a higher being.
Correct Answer: B) An inability to experience pleasure or happiness (alogia refers to a
decrease in thought, speech, & fluency)
Rationale: Alogia is a negative symptom of schizophrenia that manifests as poverty of
speech or speech content. The client may provide very brief or empty responses, reflecting a
decrease in the fluidity of thought and communication.
Question 2
A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder tells the nurse, "I just don't find joy in my
hobbies or spending time with my grandchildren anymore." The nurse should document this as:
A) Avolition
B) Alogia
C) Anhedonia
D) Akathisia
E) Ambivalence
Correct Answer: C) Anhedonia
Rationale: Anhedonia is the clinical term for the inability to experience pleasure from
activities that were previously found enjoyable. It is a hallmark symptom of depressive
disorders and certain phases of schizophrenia.
Question 3
Which assessment finding in a psychiatric client is the best example of "avolition"?
A) The client speaks in a monotone voice with very few words.
B) The client is unable to experience happiness even during a party.
C) The client lacks the motivation or ability to initiate and persist in self-directed purposeful
activities.
D) The client mimics the physical movements of the nurse.
E) The client stops talking in the middle of a sentence and cannot remember what they were
saying.
Correct Answer: C) lack of motivation
Rationale: Avolition is a negative symptom involving a lack of drive or motivation to pursue
, 2
meaningful goals, such as maintaining hygiene, attending work, or engaging in social
interactions.
Question 4
Which of the following clients is at the greatest risk for colonizing or developing a Methicillin-
resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection?
A) A 25-year-old athlete with a fractured radius.
B) A 40-year-old with a urinary tract infection (UTI) and a spinal cord injury.
C) A 10-year-old with seasonal allergies and asthma.
D) A 60-year-old following a routine screening colonoscopy.
E) A 30-year-old pregnant woman in her first trimester.
Correct Answer: B) UTI and spinal cord injury- frequent antibiotics, increased risk for skin
breakdown and MRSA colonization on the skin
Rationale: Clients with spinal cord injuries often face prolonged hospitalizations, frequent
use of broad-spectrum antibiotics for UTIs, and high risks of skin breakdown (pressure
injuries). These factors significantly increase the likelihood of MRSA colonization and
infection.
Question 5
At what age should a parent first take their child for professional dental prophylaxis (cleaning)?
A) 6 months, when the first tooth appears.
B) 12 months, regardless of the number of teeth.
C) 2 to 3 years, when most deciduous teeth have erupted.
D) 5 years, just before starting kindergarten.
E) 7 years, when the first permanent molars appear.
Correct Answer: C) 2-3 years- when most of deciduous teeth have erupted
Rationale: By age 2 to 3, most children have a full set of primary (deciduous) teeth. This is
the appropriate time to begin professional cleanings and to establish a dental home for
preventative care.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a client who just delivered a healthy infant. What is the primary reason the
nurse encourages the client to ambulate shortly after delivery?
A) To promote the production of breast milk.
B) To increase peripheral vasomotor activity and decrease the risk of blood clots.
C) To ensure the fundus remains soft and boggy.
D) To prevent the occurrence of postpartum depression.
E) To assist the client in regaining her pre-pregnancy weight immediately.
Correct Answer: B) increase peripheral vasomotor activity- decreases chance of blood
clotting
Rationale: Early ambulation is a critical nursing intervention postpartum to prevent venous
, 3
stasis. By increasing vasomotor activity and circulation, the risk of deep vein thrombosis
(DVT) and subsequent pulmonary embolism is significantly reduced.
Question 7
A postpartum nurse is assessing a client 5 days after delivery. Which type of lochia is an
expected finding at this time?
A) Lochia rubra
B) Lochia serosa
C) Lochia alba
D) Lochia purulenta
E) Lochia hematosa
Correct Answer: B) Lochia serosa
Rationale: Lochia serosa is a pinkish or brownish discharge that typically occurs from
postpartum day 3 to day 10. It consists of old blood, serum, leukocytes, and tissue debris.
Question 8
Which finding would the nurse expect to document for a client who is 36 hours (1.5 days)
postpartum?
A) Lochia serosa
B) Lochia alba
C) Lochia rubra
D) Greenish-yellow discharge
E) Total absence of lochia
Correct Answer: C) Lochia rubra
Rationale: Lochia rubra is the initial postpartum discharge. It is bright red, may contain
small clots, and typically lasts for the first 1 to 3 days after delivery.
Question 9
A client who is 15 days postpartum calls the clinic to describe her vaginal discharge. Which
description is consistent with lochia alba?
A) Bright red with large clots.
B) Pinkish-brown and thin.
C) Yellowish-white discharge.
D) Foul-smelling greenish fluid.
E) Dark brown with a heavy flow.
Correct Answer: C) Lochia alba (white/yellow- 10 days- 3 weeks postpartum)
Rationale: Lochia alba is the final stage of lochia, appearing around 10 days to 3 weeks
postpartum. It is characterized by a yellowish-white color and consists mainly of
leukocytes, decidua, epithelial cells, mucus, and bacteria.
, 4
Question 10
A nurse arrives at the scene of a house fire where chemicals were stored. What is the first priority
when assessing victims?
A) Checking for bone fractures.
B) Evaluating for pulmonary distress and inhalation burns.
C) Assessing the percentage of skin surface burned.
D) Identifying the specific chemical manufacturer.
E) Determining the cost of the property damage.
Correct Answer: B) pulmonary distress- inhalation burns
Rationale: In a fire involving chemicals, the highest risk to life is airway compromise and
lung injury due to the inhalation of smoke and toxic fumes. Securing the airway and
assessing respiratory status always takes precedence over other injuries.
Question 11
When teaching a young adult male about the self-examination for testicular cancer, which
instruction should the nurse include?
A) Perform the exam once a year during a physical.
B) Use cold water to make the skin taut for better feeling.
C) Roll each testicle between the thumb and fingers once a month in a warm shower.
D) Only examine the area if pain or swelling is present.
E) Apply firm pressure to the testicles to check for internal bruising.
Correct Answer: C) once a month in shower roll fingers between thumb. warmth of shower
will help to palpate more easily
Rationale: Testicular self-exams (TSE) should be done monthly. The warmth of the shower
relaxes the scrotum, allowing the testicles to drop and making it easier to palpate any
unusual lumps or masses.
Question 12
A client is being fitted for a contraceptive diaphragm. Which information should the nurse
provide regarding its use?
A) Lubricate the diaphragm with oil-based jelly before insertion.
B) It can be left in place for up to 48 hours without removal.
C) An annual gynecologic exam is required to check the fit of the device.
D) It should be worn continuously during the menstrual period.
E) It is 100% effective against the transmission of HIV.
Correct Answer: C) annual gynecologic exam to check fit, no lubricant on insertion, remove
after each use, & during menstruation
Rationale: Diaphragms must be fitted by a provider. Changes in weight or pregnancy can
alter the fit, requiring annual checks. They should not be used with oil-based lubricants
UPDATE THIS YEAR JUST RELEASED
Question 1
A nurse is assessing a client with schizophrenia and notes the presence of "alogia." Which of the
following best describes this finding?
A) The client reports hearing voices that are not there.
B) The client shows a significant decrease in the quantity and fluency of thought and speech.
C) The client is unable to sit still and is constantly pacing.
D) The client expresses a lack of motivation to complete basic self-care.
E) The client believes they have special powers given by a higher being.
Correct Answer: B) An inability to experience pleasure or happiness (alogia refers to a
decrease in thought, speech, & fluency)
Rationale: Alogia is a negative symptom of schizophrenia that manifests as poverty of
speech or speech content. The client may provide very brief or empty responses, reflecting a
decrease in the fluidity of thought and communication.
Question 2
A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder tells the nurse, "I just don't find joy in my
hobbies or spending time with my grandchildren anymore." The nurse should document this as:
A) Avolition
B) Alogia
C) Anhedonia
D) Akathisia
E) Ambivalence
Correct Answer: C) Anhedonia
Rationale: Anhedonia is the clinical term for the inability to experience pleasure from
activities that were previously found enjoyable. It is a hallmark symptom of depressive
disorders and certain phases of schizophrenia.
Question 3
Which assessment finding in a psychiatric client is the best example of "avolition"?
A) The client speaks in a monotone voice with very few words.
B) The client is unable to experience happiness even during a party.
C) The client lacks the motivation or ability to initiate and persist in self-directed purposeful
activities.
D) The client mimics the physical movements of the nurse.
E) The client stops talking in the middle of a sentence and cannot remember what they were
saying.
Correct Answer: C) lack of motivation
Rationale: Avolition is a negative symptom involving a lack of drive or motivation to pursue
, 2
meaningful goals, such as maintaining hygiene, attending work, or engaging in social
interactions.
Question 4
Which of the following clients is at the greatest risk for colonizing or developing a Methicillin-
resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection?
A) A 25-year-old athlete with a fractured radius.
B) A 40-year-old with a urinary tract infection (UTI) and a spinal cord injury.
C) A 10-year-old with seasonal allergies and asthma.
D) A 60-year-old following a routine screening colonoscopy.
E) A 30-year-old pregnant woman in her first trimester.
Correct Answer: B) UTI and spinal cord injury- frequent antibiotics, increased risk for skin
breakdown and MRSA colonization on the skin
Rationale: Clients with spinal cord injuries often face prolonged hospitalizations, frequent
use of broad-spectrum antibiotics for UTIs, and high risks of skin breakdown (pressure
injuries). These factors significantly increase the likelihood of MRSA colonization and
infection.
Question 5
At what age should a parent first take their child for professional dental prophylaxis (cleaning)?
A) 6 months, when the first tooth appears.
B) 12 months, regardless of the number of teeth.
C) 2 to 3 years, when most deciduous teeth have erupted.
D) 5 years, just before starting kindergarten.
E) 7 years, when the first permanent molars appear.
Correct Answer: C) 2-3 years- when most of deciduous teeth have erupted
Rationale: By age 2 to 3, most children have a full set of primary (deciduous) teeth. This is
the appropriate time to begin professional cleanings and to establish a dental home for
preventative care.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a client who just delivered a healthy infant. What is the primary reason the
nurse encourages the client to ambulate shortly after delivery?
A) To promote the production of breast milk.
B) To increase peripheral vasomotor activity and decrease the risk of blood clots.
C) To ensure the fundus remains soft and boggy.
D) To prevent the occurrence of postpartum depression.
E) To assist the client in regaining her pre-pregnancy weight immediately.
Correct Answer: B) increase peripheral vasomotor activity- decreases chance of blood
clotting
Rationale: Early ambulation is a critical nursing intervention postpartum to prevent venous
, 3
stasis. By increasing vasomotor activity and circulation, the risk of deep vein thrombosis
(DVT) and subsequent pulmonary embolism is significantly reduced.
Question 7
A postpartum nurse is assessing a client 5 days after delivery. Which type of lochia is an
expected finding at this time?
A) Lochia rubra
B) Lochia serosa
C) Lochia alba
D) Lochia purulenta
E) Lochia hematosa
Correct Answer: B) Lochia serosa
Rationale: Lochia serosa is a pinkish or brownish discharge that typically occurs from
postpartum day 3 to day 10. It consists of old blood, serum, leukocytes, and tissue debris.
Question 8
Which finding would the nurse expect to document for a client who is 36 hours (1.5 days)
postpartum?
A) Lochia serosa
B) Lochia alba
C) Lochia rubra
D) Greenish-yellow discharge
E) Total absence of lochia
Correct Answer: C) Lochia rubra
Rationale: Lochia rubra is the initial postpartum discharge. It is bright red, may contain
small clots, and typically lasts for the first 1 to 3 days after delivery.
Question 9
A client who is 15 days postpartum calls the clinic to describe her vaginal discharge. Which
description is consistent with lochia alba?
A) Bright red with large clots.
B) Pinkish-brown and thin.
C) Yellowish-white discharge.
D) Foul-smelling greenish fluid.
E) Dark brown with a heavy flow.
Correct Answer: C) Lochia alba (white/yellow- 10 days- 3 weeks postpartum)
Rationale: Lochia alba is the final stage of lochia, appearing around 10 days to 3 weeks
postpartum. It is characterized by a yellowish-white color and consists mainly of
leukocytes, decidua, epithelial cells, mucus, and bacteria.
, 4
Question 10
A nurse arrives at the scene of a house fire where chemicals were stored. What is the first priority
when assessing victims?
A) Checking for bone fractures.
B) Evaluating for pulmonary distress and inhalation burns.
C) Assessing the percentage of skin surface burned.
D) Identifying the specific chemical manufacturer.
E) Determining the cost of the property damage.
Correct Answer: B) pulmonary distress- inhalation burns
Rationale: In a fire involving chemicals, the highest risk to life is airway compromise and
lung injury due to the inhalation of smoke and toxic fumes. Securing the airway and
assessing respiratory status always takes precedence over other injuries.
Question 11
When teaching a young adult male about the self-examination for testicular cancer, which
instruction should the nurse include?
A) Perform the exam once a year during a physical.
B) Use cold water to make the skin taut for better feeling.
C) Roll each testicle between the thumb and fingers once a month in a warm shower.
D) Only examine the area if pain or swelling is present.
E) Apply firm pressure to the testicles to check for internal bruising.
Correct Answer: C) once a month in shower roll fingers between thumb. warmth of shower
will help to palpate more easily
Rationale: Testicular self-exams (TSE) should be done monthly. The warmth of the shower
relaxes the scrotum, allowing the testicles to drop and making it easier to palpate any
unusual lumps or masses.
Question 12
A client is being fitted for a contraceptive diaphragm. Which information should the nurse
provide regarding its use?
A) Lubricate the diaphragm with oil-based jelly before insertion.
B) It can be left in place for up to 48 hours without removal.
C) An annual gynecologic exam is required to check the fit of the device.
D) It should be worn continuously during the menstrual period.
E) It is 100% effective against the transmission of HIV.
Correct Answer: C) annual gynecologic exam to check fit, no lubricant on insertion, remove
after each use, & during menstruation
Rationale: Diaphragms must be fitted by a provider. Changes in weight or pregnancy can
alter the fit, requiring annual checks. They should not be used with oil-based lubricants
