NSG 3800 Adult Health II Exam 2 Newest
Practice Test Bank Correctly Answered
Practice Questions with Rationales/
Galen NSG 3800 Exam 2 Most Recent
Practice Test GRADE A+
Cardiovascular Disorders
Q1. A patient with a history of opioid use disorder is prescribed
buprenorphine-naloxone. What is the primary rationale for including
naloxone?
A. To enhance the analgesic effect of buprenorphine
B. To prevent respiratory depression caused by buprenorphine
C. To deter intravenous misuse by precipitating withdrawal
D. To reduce the risk of QT prolongation
Rationale: Naloxone is added to buprenorphine to deter misuse. When
taken sublingually as prescribed, naloxone has minimal bioavailability;
however, if crushed and injected, it precipitates severe withdrawal,
discouraging diversion. It does not enhance analgesia or prevent
respiratory depression in normal use. QT prolongation is associated with
methadone, not buprenorphine .
Q2. What blood pressure goal is recommended for most adults
according to current ACC/AHA guidelines?
,A. Less than 140/90 mm Hg
B. Less than 130/80 mm Hg
C. Less than 150/90 mm Hg
D. Less than 120/80 mm Hg
Rationale: Current guidelines (ACC/AHA) define hypertension as ≥130/80
mm Hg and the treatment goal for most adults is less than 130/80 mm Hg.
Lower targets may be appropriate for some high-risk individuals .
Q3. The nurse is providing teaching to a patient with angina about
sublingual nitroglycerin. Which statement by the patient indicates
correct understanding?
A. "I will swallow the tablet with a glass of water."
B. "I will take one tablet every 5 minutes for a total of three doses, and
call 911 if pain persists."
C. "I will store the tablets in the refrigerator."
D. "I will take one tablet every 15 minutes until the pain is relieved."
Rationale: The standard protocol for acute angina is sublingual
nitroglycerin, one dose every 5 minutes, up to three doses. If pain is
unrelieved, emergency medical services should be activated. The tablet
should dissolve under the tongue, not be swallowed. Storage should be in a
cool, dry place away from light and moisture .
Q4. A patient presents with ST-segment elevation on ECG. What is the
priority intervention?
A. Administer aspirin and morphine
B. Begin continuous cardiac monitoring
,C. Prepare for emergency percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
D. Administer oxygen at 4 L/min
Rationale: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) requires immediate
reperfusion, ideally by percutaneous coronary intervention within 90
minutes. Aspirin, oxygen (if hypoxic), and morphine are adjunctive but do
not replace timely revascularization .
Q5. What issues should the nurse be cautious about when
administering beta-blockers?
A. Mild bradycardia, heart failure, hypotension, and asthma
(bronchospasm risk)
B. Tachycardia and hypertension
C. Hyperkalemia and hyperglycemia
D. Sedation and respiratory depression
Rationale: Beta-blockers can cause mild bradycardia, heart failure
exacerbation, and hypotension. They can also cause bronchospasm, so they
should be used with caution in patients with asthma or COPD .
Respiratory Disorders
Q6. A patient with COPD should have oxygen administered at what
target SpO₂?
A. Maintain SpO₂ greater than 95%
B. Maintain SpO₂ less than 88%
C. Maintain SpO₂ between 88-92%
D. Continuously at a high flow rate
, Rationale: In COPD, target SpO₂ is 88-92% to avoid hypercapnia. High-flow
oxygen can suppress the hypoxic drive and lead to respiratory failure in
patients with chronic CO₂ retention .
Q7. Which assessment finding is most consistent with a pleural
effusion?
A. Hyperresonance to percussion
B. Dullness to percussion
C. Increased tactile fremitus
D. Bronchial breath sounds
Rationale: A pleural effusion causes dullness to percussion due to the
accumulation of fluid in the pleural space. Hyperresonance is associated
with pneumothorax or emphysema .
Q8. A patient is diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB). Which type of
precautions should the nurse implement?
A. Standard precautions
B. Contact precautions
C. Droplet precautions
D. Airborne precautions
Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne particles and requires
airborne precautions. This includes a negative pressure room and the use of
an N95 respirator .
Practice Test Bank Correctly Answered
Practice Questions with Rationales/
Galen NSG 3800 Exam 2 Most Recent
Practice Test GRADE A+
Cardiovascular Disorders
Q1. A patient with a history of opioid use disorder is prescribed
buprenorphine-naloxone. What is the primary rationale for including
naloxone?
A. To enhance the analgesic effect of buprenorphine
B. To prevent respiratory depression caused by buprenorphine
C. To deter intravenous misuse by precipitating withdrawal
D. To reduce the risk of QT prolongation
Rationale: Naloxone is added to buprenorphine to deter misuse. When
taken sublingually as prescribed, naloxone has minimal bioavailability;
however, if crushed and injected, it precipitates severe withdrawal,
discouraging diversion. It does not enhance analgesia or prevent
respiratory depression in normal use. QT prolongation is associated with
methadone, not buprenorphine .
Q2. What blood pressure goal is recommended for most adults
according to current ACC/AHA guidelines?
,A. Less than 140/90 mm Hg
B. Less than 130/80 mm Hg
C. Less than 150/90 mm Hg
D. Less than 120/80 mm Hg
Rationale: Current guidelines (ACC/AHA) define hypertension as ≥130/80
mm Hg and the treatment goal for most adults is less than 130/80 mm Hg.
Lower targets may be appropriate for some high-risk individuals .
Q3. The nurse is providing teaching to a patient with angina about
sublingual nitroglycerin. Which statement by the patient indicates
correct understanding?
A. "I will swallow the tablet with a glass of water."
B. "I will take one tablet every 5 minutes for a total of three doses, and
call 911 if pain persists."
C. "I will store the tablets in the refrigerator."
D. "I will take one tablet every 15 minutes until the pain is relieved."
Rationale: The standard protocol for acute angina is sublingual
nitroglycerin, one dose every 5 minutes, up to three doses. If pain is
unrelieved, emergency medical services should be activated. The tablet
should dissolve under the tongue, not be swallowed. Storage should be in a
cool, dry place away from light and moisture .
Q4. A patient presents with ST-segment elevation on ECG. What is the
priority intervention?
A. Administer aspirin and morphine
B. Begin continuous cardiac monitoring
,C. Prepare for emergency percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
D. Administer oxygen at 4 L/min
Rationale: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) requires immediate
reperfusion, ideally by percutaneous coronary intervention within 90
minutes. Aspirin, oxygen (if hypoxic), and morphine are adjunctive but do
not replace timely revascularization .
Q5. What issues should the nurse be cautious about when
administering beta-blockers?
A. Mild bradycardia, heart failure, hypotension, and asthma
(bronchospasm risk)
B. Tachycardia and hypertension
C. Hyperkalemia and hyperglycemia
D. Sedation and respiratory depression
Rationale: Beta-blockers can cause mild bradycardia, heart failure
exacerbation, and hypotension. They can also cause bronchospasm, so they
should be used with caution in patients with asthma or COPD .
Respiratory Disorders
Q6. A patient with COPD should have oxygen administered at what
target SpO₂?
A. Maintain SpO₂ greater than 95%
B. Maintain SpO₂ less than 88%
C. Maintain SpO₂ between 88-92%
D. Continuously at a high flow rate
, Rationale: In COPD, target SpO₂ is 88-92% to avoid hypercapnia. High-flow
oxygen can suppress the hypoxic drive and lead to respiratory failure in
patients with chronic CO₂ retention .
Q7. Which assessment finding is most consistent with a pleural
effusion?
A. Hyperresonance to percussion
B. Dullness to percussion
C. Increased tactile fremitus
D. Bronchial breath sounds
Rationale: A pleural effusion causes dullness to percussion due to the
accumulation of fluid in the pleural space. Hyperresonance is associated
with pneumothorax or emphysema .
Q8. A patient is diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB). Which type of
precautions should the nurse implement?
A. Standard precautions
B. Contact precautions
C. Droplet precautions
D. Airborne precautions
Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne particles and requires
airborne precautions. This includes a negative pressure room and the use of
an N95 respirator .
