NUR 231 Exam 2: Childbearing & Child Caring Family 2026… 2026 Update • Verified Answers
✓ VERIFIED • 2026 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
NUR 231 Exam 2: Childbearing & Child Caring
Family 2026 UPDATE
Actual Exam Questions & Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations)
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Full Rationales
Status: Verified & Updated for 2026
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 1
,NUR 231 Exam 2: Childbearing & Child Caring Family 2026… 2026 Update • Verified Answers
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation reports painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which
condition is most likely?
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Preterm labor
Answer: A
Rationale: Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is a classic sign of placenta previa,
whereas abruptio placentae involves painful bleeding. This is an important clinical concept because selecting
the correct answer (A) requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications.
Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate
patient education.
2. Which fetal heart rate pattern should the nurse prioritize for immediate intervention?
A. Late decelerations
B. Accelerations
C. Early decelerations
D. Mild variable decelerations
Answer: A
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency and are non-reassuring, requiring immediate
intervention such as repositioning and oxygen. Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this concept
from closely related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery. Applying this knowledge in
clinical settings supports safe, evidence-based practice and improves patient outcomes.
3. A nurse is monitoring a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate for preeclampsia. Which finding
suggests toxicity?
A. Hyperreflexia
B. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
C. Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg
D. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min
Answer: D
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate toxicity is characterized by respiratory depression (under 12 bpm), loss of deep
tendon reflexes, and decreased urinary output. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the
correct answer (D) requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications.
Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate
patient education.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 2
, NUR 231 Exam 2: Childbearing & Child Caring Family 2026… 2026 Update • Verified Answers
4. Using Naegele’s rule, what is the EDD for a woman whose LMP was March 10th?
A. December 17th
B. December 3rd
C. December 10th
D. January 17th
Answer: A
Rationale: Naegele’s rule: Subtract 3 months, add 7 days to the LMP. March minus 3 months is December; 10
plus 7 days is 17. Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and
provide accurate patient education. Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this concept from closely
related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery.
5. An infant’s APGAR score at 1 minute is 7. The infant is pink with blue extremities, HR is 110,
has a vigorous cry, and displays active motion, but has a weak grimace. Which category was
scored as 1?
A. Heart rate
B. Muscle tone
C. Respiratory effort
D. Reflex irritability
Answer: D
Rationale: A weak grimace scores a 1 for reflex irritability. Heart rate >100 is 2, active motion is 2, vigorous cry
is 2, and blue extremities (acrocyanosis) is 1. Total score 8, but the question identifies the grimace specifically.
Applying this knowledge in clinical settings supports safe, evidence-based practice and improves patient
outcomes.
6. What is the primary purpose of administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)?
A. To prevent sensitization in an Rh-negative mother
B. To treat jaundice in the newborn
C. To stimulate fetal lung maturity
D. immune globulin (RhoGAM)?
Answer: A
Rationale: RhoGAM prevents the Rh-negative mother’s immune system from developing antibodies against
Rh-positive fetal blood cells. Applying this knowledge in clinical settings supports safe, evidence-based practice
and improves patient outcomes. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the correct answer (A)
requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 3
✓ VERIFIED • 2026 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
NUR 231 Exam 2: Childbearing & Child Caring
Family 2026 UPDATE
Actual Exam Questions & Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations)
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Full Rationales
Status: Verified & Updated for 2026
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 1
,NUR 231 Exam 2: Childbearing & Child Caring Family 2026… 2026 Update • Verified Answers
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation reports painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which
condition is most likely?
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Preterm labor
Answer: A
Rationale: Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is a classic sign of placenta previa,
whereas abruptio placentae involves painful bleeding. This is an important clinical concept because selecting
the correct answer (A) requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications.
Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate
patient education.
2. Which fetal heart rate pattern should the nurse prioritize for immediate intervention?
A. Late decelerations
B. Accelerations
C. Early decelerations
D. Mild variable decelerations
Answer: A
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency and are non-reassuring, requiring immediate
intervention such as repositioning and oxygen. Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this concept
from closely related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery. Applying this knowledge in
clinical settings supports safe, evidence-based practice and improves patient outcomes.
3. A nurse is monitoring a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate for preeclampsia. Which finding
suggests toxicity?
A. Hyperreflexia
B. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
C. Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg
D. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min
Answer: D
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate toxicity is characterized by respiratory depression (under 12 bpm), loss of deep
tendon reflexes, and decreased urinary output. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the
correct answer (D) requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications.
Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate
patient education.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 2
, NUR 231 Exam 2: Childbearing & Child Caring Family 2026… 2026 Update • Verified Answers
4. Using Naegele’s rule, what is the EDD for a woman whose LMP was March 10th?
A. December 17th
B. December 3rd
C. December 10th
D. January 17th
Answer: A
Rationale: Naegele’s rule: Subtract 3 months, add 7 days to the LMP. March minus 3 months is December; 10
plus 7 days is 17. Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and
provide accurate patient education. Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this concept from closely
related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery.
5. An infant’s APGAR score at 1 minute is 7. The infant is pink with blue extremities, HR is 110,
has a vigorous cry, and displays active motion, but has a weak grimace. Which category was
scored as 1?
A. Heart rate
B. Muscle tone
C. Respiratory effort
D. Reflex irritability
Answer: D
Rationale: A weak grimace scores a 1 for reflex irritability. Heart rate >100 is 2, active motion is 2, vigorous cry
is 2, and blue extremities (acrocyanosis) is 1. Total score 8, but the question identifies the grimace specifically.
Applying this knowledge in clinical settings supports safe, evidence-based practice and improves patient
outcomes.
6. What is the primary purpose of administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)?
A. To prevent sensitization in an Rh-negative mother
B. To treat jaundice in the newborn
C. To stimulate fetal lung maturity
D. immune globulin (RhoGAM)?
Answer: A
Rationale: RhoGAM prevents the Rh-negative mother’s immune system from developing antibodies against
Rh-positive fetal blood cells. Applying this knowledge in clinical settings supports safe, evidence-based practice
and improves patient outcomes. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the correct answer (A)
requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 3
