EMT Trauma Exam FISDAP Exam 1 | Latest Updated Version
2026/2027 | 300 Questions with Verified Answers & Rationales |
INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD
1. What is the most preventable cause of trauma death for adults?
A) Tension pneumothorax
B) Hemorrhagic shock
C) Airway obstruction
D) Neurogenic shock
Answer B: Hemorrhagic shock
Rationale: Hemorrhagic shock is the leading preventable cause of trauma death; rapid hemorrhage
control and transport are critical.
2. To properly immobilize a forearm fracture, the EMT should splint:
A) Wrist, elbow, and fracture site
B) Fracture site only
C) Wrist and elbow
D) Elbow and shoulder
Answer A: Wrist, elbow, and fracture site
Rationale: Splint should immobilize the joint above and below the fracture.
3. Crepitation is defined as:
A) The sound of a bone breaking
B) When a bone is seen sticking out of the skin
C) A type of long bone fracture
D) The sound when two bones rub together
Answer D: The sound when two bones rub together
Rationale: Crepitus or crepitation is the grating sound or sensation of bone ends rubbing together.
,4. Which mechanism of injury suggests the greatest possibility of spinal injury?
A) Penetration injury to the upper torso
B) Restrained patient in a motor vehicle collision
C) Dislocated arm while playing basketball
D) Gunshot wound to the lower thigh
Answer B: Restrained patient in a motor vehicle collision
Rationale: MVA mechanisms (even with restraints) can generate significant forces on the spine.
5. Primary treatment for an evisceration should include:
A) Apply a dry bulky dressing only
B) Applying a wet dressing first, followed by a bulky dressing
C) Do not touch the evisceration, rapid transport only
D) Attempt to replace exposed organs
Answer B: Applying a wet dressing first, followed by a bulky dressing
Rationale: Wet sterile dressing prevents drying; do not attempt to replace organs.
6. When is the detailed physical exam usually performed?
A) Immediately after the rapid trauma assessment
B) On the scene after performing the initial assessment
C) Upon arrival to the hospital's emergency department
D) In the back of the ambulance on the way to the hospital
Answer D: In the back of the ambulance on the way to the hospital
Rationale: The detailed exam is performed en route to find injuries missed during rapid assessment.
7. It is appropriate to perform a head-tilt/chin-lift in a trauma patient only if:
A) Your partner is able to stabilize the spine
,B) There is no other way to open the airway
C) This procedure should never be performed on a trauma patient
D) An advanced airway is not available
Answer B: There is no other way to open the airway
Rationale: Head-tilt/chin-lift is used only when jaw-thrust fails to open the airway.
8. With regard to pedestrian versus motor vehicle collisions, which statement is typically true?
A) Adults tend to turn away and go down and under
B) Adults tend to turn toward and go up and over
C) Children tend to turn away from the impact
D) Children tend to turn toward the impact and go down and under
Answer D: Children tend to turn toward the impact and go down and under
Rationale: Children are shorter and often struck lower, going down and under the vehicle.
9. After immobilizing a suspected spinal cord injury patient to a backboard, the patient vomits.
You should next:
A) Tilt the board and suction
B) Keep the patient secured to the board and suction
C) Insert a combitube
D) Remove the patient from the board
Answer A: Tilt the board and suction
Rationale: Tilt the board (log roll as a unit) to allow emesis drainage while maintaining spinal alignment.
10. When assessing motor function of the lower extremities in a patient with an ankle sprain, you
should:
A) Have the patient bend his knees
B) Lightly touch the skin of the patient's foot
C) Palpate around the patient's ankle
, D) Ask the patient to wiggle his toes
Answer D: Ask the patient to wiggle his toes
Rationale: Motor function in the lower extremity is assessed by asking the patient to wiggle toes.
11. A trauma patient opens eyes slightly and moans when the EMT applies a painful stimulus.
What is the GCS score?
A) 7
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
Answer B: 8
Rationale: Eye opening to pain = 2; moaning = 2; withdrawal from pain = 4; total = 8.
12. Following a head injury, a young woman is semiconscious and is bleeding from the nose and
left ear. You should:
A) Place a pressure dressing over her ear
B) Cover her ear and nose with a loose gauze pad
C) Control bleeding by pinching her nostrils
D) Insert a nasal airway
Answer B: Cover her ear and nose with a loose gauze pad
Rationale: Blood/CSF from ears/nose indicates skull fracture; do not pack or occlude—loosely cover.
13. Which pulse location is most distal to a forearm injury?
A) Radial
B) Brachial
C) Pedal
D) Popliteal
Answer A: Radial
2026/2027 | 300 Questions with Verified Answers & Rationales |
INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD
1. What is the most preventable cause of trauma death for adults?
A) Tension pneumothorax
B) Hemorrhagic shock
C) Airway obstruction
D) Neurogenic shock
Answer B: Hemorrhagic shock
Rationale: Hemorrhagic shock is the leading preventable cause of trauma death; rapid hemorrhage
control and transport are critical.
2. To properly immobilize a forearm fracture, the EMT should splint:
A) Wrist, elbow, and fracture site
B) Fracture site only
C) Wrist and elbow
D) Elbow and shoulder
Answer A: Wrist, elbow, and fracture site
Rationale: Splint should immobilize the joint above and below the fracture.
3. Crepitation is defined as:
A) The sound of a bone breaking
B) When a bone is seen sticking out of the skin
C) A type of long bone fracture
D) The sound when two bones rub together
Answer D: The sound when two bones rub together
Rationale: Crepitus or crepitation is the grating sound or sensation of bone ends rubbing together.
,4. Which mechanism of injury suggests the greatest possibility of spinal injury?
A) Penetration injury to the upper torso
B) Restrained patient in a motor vehicle collision
C) Dislocated arm while playing basketball
D) Gunshot wound to the lower thigh
Answer B: Restrained patient in a motor vehicle collision
Rationale: MVA mechanisms (even with restraints) can generate significant forces on the spine.
5. Primary treatment for an evisceration should include:
A) Apply a dry bulky dressing only
B) Applying a wet dressing first, followed by a bulky dressing
C) Do not touch the evisceration, rapid transport only
D) Attempt to replace exposed organs
Answer B: Applying a wet dressing first, followed by a bulky dressing
Rationale: Wet sterile dressing prevents drying; do not attempt to replace organs.
6. When is the detailed physical exam usually performed?
A) Immediately after the rapid trauma assessment
B) On the scene after performing the initial assessment
C) Upon arrival to the hospital's emergency department
D) In the back of the ambulance on the way to the hospital
Answer D: In the back of the ambulance on the way to the hospital
Rationale: The detailed exam is performed en route to find injuries missed during rapid assessment.
7. It is appropriate to perform a head-tilt/chin-lift in a trauma patient only if:
A) Your partner is able to stabilize the spine
,B) There is no other way to open the airway
C) This procedure should never be performed on a trauma patient
D) An advanced airway is not available
Answer B: There is no other way to open the airway
Rationale: Head-tilt/chin-lift is used only when jaw-thrust fails to open the airway.
8. With regard to pedestrian versus motor vehicle collisions, which statement is typically true?
A) Adults tend to turn away and go down and under
B) Adults tend to turn toward and go up and over
C) Children tend to turn away from the impact
D) Children tend to turn toward the impact and go down and under
Answer D: Children tend to turn toward the impact and go down and under
Rationale: Children are shorter and often struck lower, going down and under the vehicle.
9. After immobilizing a suspected spinal cord injury patient to a backboard, the patient vomits.
You should next:
A) Tilt the board and suction
B) Keep the patient secured to the board and suction
C) Insert a combitube
D) Remove the patient from the board
Answer A: Tilt the board and suction
Rationale: Tilt the board (log roll as a unit) to allow emesis drainage while maintaining spinal alignment.
10. When assessing motor function of the lower extremities in a patient with an ankle sprain, you
should:
A) Have the patient bend his knees
B) Lightly touch the skin of the patient's foot
C) Palpate around the patient's ankle
, D) Ask the patient to wiggle his toes
Answer D: Ask the patient to wiggle his toes
Rationale: Motor function in the lower extremity is assessed by asking the patient to wiggle toes.
11. A trauma patient opens eyes slightly and moans when the EMT applies a painful stimulus.
What is the GCS score?
A) 7
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
Answer B: 8
Rationale: Eye opening to pain = 2; moaning = 2; withdrawal from pain = 4; total = 8.
12. Following a head injury, a young woman is semiconscious and is bleeding from the nose and
left ear. You should:
A) Place a pressure dressing over her ear
B) Cover her ear and nose with a loose gauze pad
C) Control bleeding by pinching her nostrils
D) Insert a nasal airway
Answer B: Cover her ear and nose with a loose gauze pad
Rationale: Blood/CSF from ears/nose indicates skull fracture; do not pack or occlude—loosely cover.
13. Which pulse location is most distal to a forearm injury?
A) Radial
B) Brachial
C) Pedal
D) Popliteal
Answer A: Radial
