NR 566 Pharmacology Exam Questions with
Correct Answers (VerifiedAnswers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A Instant Download PDF
Practice Exam — Multiple Choice
1. A patient taking an ACE inhibitor develops a persistent dry
cough. Which medication-related mechanism best explains
this adverse effect?
A. Increased aldosterone secretion
B. Increased sodium retention
C. Accumulation of bradykinin
D. Increased histamine release
Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent the conversion of angiotensin I
to angiotensin II and also inhibit the breakdown of bradykinin.
Increased bradykinin levels are strongly associated with the
characteristic persistent, dry cough seen with this medication
class. If the cough is troublesome, an angiotensin II receptor
blocker (ARB) may be considered because ARBs do not
significantly increase bradykinin.
,2. Which medication is considered a first-line pharmacologic
treatment for uncomplicated essential hypertension in many
adult patients?
A. Clonidine
B. Thiazide-type diuretic
C. Hydralazine
D. Digoxin
Rationale: Thiazide-type diuretics are established first-line
antihypertensive agents and are particularly effective for
reducing blood pressure in many patients with uncomplicated
hypertension. They promote sodium and water excretion,
initially reducing plasma volume and cardiac output, with
longer-term effects involving decreased peripheral vascular
resistance. Electrolytes, particularly potassium and sodium,
should be monitored.
3. A patient taking lisinopril reports swelling of the lips and
tongue. What is the priority action?
A. Administer the next dose with food
B. Encourage increased fluid intake
C. Continue therapy and reassess in 24 hours
D. Discontinue the medication and evaluate urgently for
angioedema
,Rationale: Facial, lip, tongue, or throat swelling in a patient
taking an ACE inhibitor may represent angioedema, which can
rapidly compromise the airway and become life-threatening.
The medication should be stopped and the patient requires
immediate clinical assessment. Simply monitoring the patient at
home or administering another dose is inappropriate.
4. Which electrolyte abnormality is most associated with
hydrochlorothiazide therapy?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hypercalcemia
Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide increases urinary sodium and
chloride excretion and can increase potassium loss, resulting in
hypokalemia. Patients may experience weakness, muscle
cramps, or cardiac dysrhythmias when potassium becomes
significantly depleted. Renal function and electrolytes should be
monitored periodically during treatment.
5. Which patient finding would be most concerning in a
patient receiving spironolactone?
, A. Mild thirst
B. Increased urination
C. Potassium level of 6.1 mEq/L
D. Blood pressure of 118/72 mmHg
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and
aldosterone antagonist. Hyperkalemia is a major potential
adverse effect, particularly in patients with impaired renal
function or those taking other medications that increase
potassium. A potassium level of 6.1 mEq/L is potentially
dangerous and requires prompt evaluation.
6. Which medication is classified as an angiotensin II receptor
blocker (ARB)?
A. Lisinopril
B. Amlodipine
C. Losartan
D. Metoprolol
Rationale: Losartan is an ARB that blocks the action of
angiotensin II at the AT1 receptor. This decreases
vasoconstriction and aldosterone-mediated sodium retention.
Unlike ACE inhibitors, ARBs generally do not cause the same
degree of bradykinin accumulation and therefore have a much
lower incidence of the classic ACE-inhibitor cough.
Correct Answers (VerifiedAnswers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A Instant Download PDF
Practice Exam — Multiple Choice
1. A patient taking an ACE inhibitor develops a persistent dry
cough. Which medication-related mechanism best explains
this adverse effect?
A. Increased aldosterone secretion
B. Increased sodium retention
C. Accumulation of bradykinin
D. Increased histamine release
Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent the conversion of angiotensin I
to angiotensin II and also inhibit the breakdown of bradykinin.
Increased bradykinin levels are strongly associated with the
characteristic persistent, dry cough seen with this medication
class. If the cough is troublesome, an angiotensin II receptor
blocker (ARB) may be considered because ARBs do not
significantly increase bradykinin.
,2. Which medication is considered a first-line pharmacologic
treatment for uncomplicated essential hypertension in many
adult patients?
A. Clonidine
B. Thiazide-type diuretic
C. Hydralazine
D. Digoxin
Rationale: Thiazide-type diuretics are established first-line
antihypertensive agents and are particularly effective for
reducing blood pressure in many patients with uncomplicated
hypertension. They promote sodium and water excretion,
initially reducing plasma volume and cardiac output, with
longer-term effects involving decreased peripheral vascular
resistance. Electrolytes, particularly potassium and sodium,
should be monitored.
3. A patient taking lisinopril reports swelling of the lips and
tongue. What is the priority action?
A. Administer the next dose with food
B. Encourage increased fluid intake
C. Continue therapy and reassess in 24 hours
D. Discontinue the medication and evaluate urgently for
angioedema
,Rationale: Facial, lip, tongue, or throat swelling in a patient
taking an ACE inhibitor may represent angioedema, which can
rapidly compromise the airway and become life-threatening.
The medication should be stopped and the patient requires
immediate clinical assessment. Simply monitoring the patient at
home or administering another dose is inappropriate.
4. Which electrolyte abnormality is most associated with
hydrochlorothiazide therapy?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hypercalcemia
Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide increases urinary sodium and
chloride excretion and can increase potassium loss, resulting in
hypokalemia. Patients may experience weakness, muscle
cramps, or cardiac dysrhythmias when potassium becomes
significantly depleted. Renal function and electrolytes should be
monitored periodically during treatment.
5. Which patient finding would be most concerning in a
patient receiving spironolactone?
, A. Mild thirst
B. Increased urination
C. Potassium level of 6.1 mEq/L
D. Blood pressure of 118/72 mmHg
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and
aldosterone antagonist. Hyperkalemia is a major potential
adverse effect, particularly in patients with impaired renal
function or those taking other medications that increase
potassium. A potassium level of 6.1 mEq/L is potentially
dangerous and requires prompt evaluation.
6. Which medication is classified as an angiotensin II receptor
blocker (ARB)?
A. Lisinopril
B. Amlodipine
C. Losartan
D. Metoprolol
Rationale: Losartan is an ARB that blocks the action of
angiotensin II at the AT1 receptor. This decreases
vasoconstriction and aldosterone-mediated sodium retention.
Unlike ACE inhibitors, ARBs generally do not cause the same
degree of bradykinin accumulation and therefore have a much
lower incidence of the classic ACE-inhibitor cough.
