NR 507 Final Exam | NR507 Advanced
Pathophysiology Final Exam Preparation
Test Bank with Complete 300 Practice
Questions and Correct Answers/ NR507
Final Practice Test GRADED A+
Q1. A patient with chronic emphysema has difficulty exhaling air. This
is primarily due to:
A. Loss of elastic recoil in the alveoli
B. Thickening of the alveolar basement membrane
C. Mucus plugging of the large airways
D. Paralysis of the diaphragm
Answer: A. Loss of elastic recoil in the alveoli
Rationale: Emphysema destroys elastin in the alveolar walls, reducing elastic
recoil. This causes airway collapse during expiration and air trapping.
Q2. In asthma, the early-phase response is primarily mediated by:
A. Neutrophils and macrophages
B. Mast cell degranulation and release of histamine/leukotrienes
C. T-lymphocyte activation
D. Eosinophil infiltration
Answer: B. Mast cell degranulation and release of
histamine/leukotrienes
Rationale: The early asthmatic response (within minutes) is IgE-mediated
mast cell degranulation, releasing histamine, leukotrienes, and
prostaglandins that cause bronchospasm.
,Q3. What is the primary pathophysiologic abnormality in cystic
fibrosis?
A. Deficiency of alpha-1 antitrypsin
B. Defective chloride transport across epithelial cells
C. Autoimmune destruction of exocrine glands
D. Excessive mucus production due to goblet cell hyperplasia
Answer: B. Defective chloride transport across epithelial cells
Rationale: CF is caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene, impairing chloride
and water transport, leading to thick secretions in the lungs, pancreas, and
other organs.
Q4. A patient has a PaCO2 of 55 mm Hg and a pH of 7.30. This
indicates:
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Answer: C. Respiratory acidosis
Rationale: Elevated PaCO2 (>45 mm Hg) with decreased pH (<7.35)
indicates respiratory acidosis due to hypoventilation.
Q5. Which of the following would be expected in a patient with acute
respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
A. Increased lung compliance
B. Decreased lung compliance
,C. Normal chest x-ray
D. Low pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
Answer: B. Decreased lung compliance
Rationale: ARDS causes diffuse alveolar damage, surfactant dysfunction,
and interstitial edema, resulting in stiff ("non-compliant") lungs.
Q6. Pulmonary embolism most commonly originates from:
A. The right atrium
B. Deep veins of the lower extremities
C. Pulmonary arteries
D. The superior vena cava
Answer: B. Deep veins of the lower extremities
Rationale: Most pulmonary emboli arise from deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
in the lower extremities, which then travel to the pulmonary circulation.
Q7. In left-sided heart failure, which finding is most characteristic?
A. Jugular venous distention
B. Peripheral edema
C. Pulmonary congestion and dyspnea
D. Hepatomegaly
Answer: C. Pulmonary congestion and dyspnea
Rationale: Left-sided failure causes blood to back up into the pulmonary
circulation, leading to pulmonary edema, dyspnea, and crackles.
, Q8. Which of the following describes cardiogenic shock?
A. Hypovolemia with low cardiac output
B. Normal cardiac output with systemic vasodilation
C. Pump failure resulting in inadequate tissue perfusion
D. Obstructive shock from a pulmonary embolism
Answer: C. Pump failure resulting in inadequate tissue perfusion
Rationale: Cardiogenic shock is due to myocardial dysfunction (e.g., MI)
causing reduced cardiac output and inadequate end-organ perfusion.
Q9. A patient with hypertension has left ventricular hypertrophy. This
is an example of:
A. Pathologic hyperplasia
B. Physiologic hypertrophy
C. Pathologic hypertrophy
D. Dysplasia
Answer: C. Pathologic hypertrophy
Rationale: Increased afterload from hypertension causes the left ventricle to
enlarge (pathologic hypertrophy), which is maladaptive and increases
oxygen demand.
Q10. Which enzyme is released from damaged myocardial cells and is
most specific for cardiac injury?
A. Creatine kinase-MM
B. Troponin I
C. Lactate dehydrogenase
D. Myoglobin
Pathophysiology Final Exam Preparation
Test Bank with Complete 300 Practice
Questions and Correct Answers/ NR507
Final Practice Test GRADED A+
Q1. A patient with chronic emphysema has difficulty exhaling air. This
is primarily due to:
A. Loss of elastic recoil in the alveoli
B. Thickening of the alveolar basement membrane
C. Mucus plugging of the large airways
D. Paralysis of the diaphragm
Answer: A. Loss of elastic recoil in the alveoli
Rationale: Emphysema destroys elastin in the alveolar walls, reducing elastic
recoil. This causes airway collapse during expiration and air trapping.
Q2. In asthma, the early-phase response is primarily mediated by:
A. Neutrophils and macrophages
B. Mast cell degranulation and release of histamine/leukotrienes
C. T-lymphocyte activation
D. Eosinophil infiltration
Answer: B. Mast cell degranulation and release of
histamine/leukotrienes
Rationale: The early asthmatic response (within minutes) is IgE-mediated
mast cell degranulation, releasing histamine, leukotrienes, and
prostaglandins that cause bronchospasm.
,Q3. What is the primary pathophysiologic abnormality in cystic
fibrosis?
A. Deficiency of alpha-1 antitrypsin
B. Defective chloride transport across epithelial cells
C. Autoimmune destruction of exocrine glands
D. Excessive mucus production due to goblet cell hyperplasia
Answer: B. Defective chloride transport across epithelial cells
Rationale: CF is caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene, impairing chloride
and water transport, leading to thick secretions in the lungs, pancreas, and
other organs.
Q4. A patient has a PaCO2 of 55 mm Hg and a pH of 7.30. This
indicates:
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Answer: C. Respiratory acidosis
Rationale: Elevated PaCO2 (>45 mm Hg) with decreased pH (<7.35)
indicates respiratory acidosis due to hypoventilation.
Q5. Which of the following would be expected in a patient with acute
respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
A. Increased lung compliance
B. Decreased lung compliance
,C. Normal chest x-ray
D. Low pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
Answer: B. Decreased lung compliance
Rationale: ARDS causes diffuse alveolar damage, surfactant dysfunction,
and interstitial edema, resulting in stiff ("non-compliant") lungs.
Q6. Pulmonary embolism most commonly originates from:
A. The right atrium
B. Deep veins of the lower extremities
C. Pulmonary arteries
D. The superior vena cava
Answer: B. Deep veins of the lower extremities
Rationale: Most pulmonary emboli arise from deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
in the lower extremities, which then travel to the pulmonary circulation.
Q7. In left-sided heart failure, which finding is most characteristic?
A. Jugular venous distention
B. Peripheral edema
C. Pulmonary congestion and dyspnea
D. Hepatomegaly
Answer: C. Pulmonary congestion and dyspnea
Rationale: Left-sided failure causes blood to back up into the pulmonary
circulation, leading to pulmonary edema, dyspnea, and crackles.
, Q8. Which of the following describes cardiogenic shock?
A. Hypovolemia with low cardiac output
B. Normal cardiac output with systemic vasodilation
C. Pump failure resulting in inadequate tissue perfusion
D. Obstructive shock from a pulmonary embolism
Answer: C. Pump failure resulting in inadequate tissue perfusion
Rationale: Cardiogenic shock is due to myocardial dysfunction (e.g., MI)
causing reduced cardiac output and inadequate end-organ perfusion.
Q9. A patient with hypertension has left ventricular hypertrophy. This
is an example of:
A. Pathologic hyperplasia
B. Physiologic hypertrophy
C. Pathologic hypertrophy
D. Dysplasia
Answer: C. Pathologic hypertrophy
Rationale: Increased afterload from hypertension causes the left ventricle to
enlarge (pathologic hypertrophy), which is maladaptive and increases
oxygen demand.
Q10. Which enzyme is released from damaged myocardial cells and is
most specific for cardiac injury?
A. Creatine kinase-MM
B. Troponin I
C. Lactate dehydrogenase
D. Myoglobin
