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NR509 / NR 509 Final Exam Test Bank (Latest 2025/2026) – Advanced Physical Assessment | 150 Q&A GRADED A+

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NR509 / NR 509 Final Exam Test Bank (Latest 2025/2026) – Advanced Physical Assessment | 150 Q&A GRADED A+

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NR509 / NR 509 Final Exam Test Bank (Latest
2025/2026) – Advanced Physical Assessment |
150 Q&A GRADED A+


1. A 68-year-old retired truck driver comes to your office for
evaluation of swelling in his legs. He is a smoker and has been taking
medications to control his hypertension for the past 25 years. You are
concerned about his risk for peripheral vascular disease. Which of the
following tests are appropriate to order to initially evaluate for this
condition?

 A) Venogram
 B) CT scan of the lower legs
 C) Ankle-brachial index (ABI)
 D) PET scan

Answer: C) Ankle-brachial index (ABI)

Rationale: The Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) is a simple, non-invasive, and
effective initial screening test for peripheral arterial disease (PAD). It
compares the blood pressure in the ankle to the blood pressure in the arm
and is the standard first-line test to evaluate for PAD in patients with risk
factors like smoking and hypertension .




2. Ms. Washington is a 67-year-old who had a heart attack last month.
Now she complains of shortness of breath and not being able to sleep
in a flat position (orthopnea). On examination you note increased
jugular venous pressure, an S3 gallop, crackles low in the lung fields,
and swollen ankles (edema). This is an example of a:

 A) Pathophysiologic problem

, B) Psychopathologic problem

Answer: A) Pathophysiologic problem

Rationale: The patient's symptoms (orthopnea, elevated JVP, S3 gallop,
crackles, edema) are classic manifestations of heart failure, which is a direct
physical consequence of the myocardial damage from her previous heart
attack. The problem is rooted in a physiological process (pathophysiology),
not a psychological one .




3. A 19-year-old African-American female presents to the clinic with
moderate to severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain for the last 2
days. She has been experiencing nausea and vomiting but is unsure if
she has had fever. Which of the following is a possible differential
diagnosis?

 A) Appendicitis
 B) Gastroenteritis
 C) Urinary tract infection

Answer: A) Appendicitis

Rationale: Right lower quadrant pain is the classic presentation for
appendicitis. The presence of nausea, vomiting, and the possibility of fever
further support this as a key differential diagnosis that must be ruled out .




4. Which of the following is true of a grade 4-intensity murmur?

 A) It is moderately loud.
 B) It can be heard with the stethoscope off the chest.
 C) It can be heard with the stethoscope partially off the chest.

, D) It is associated with a "thrill."

Answer: D) It is associated with a "thrill."

Rationale: A grade 4 heart murmur is characterized by being loud and
associated with a palpable thrill. A thrill is a vibration felt on palpation of
the chest wall. A murmur that can be heard with the stethoscope off the
chest is a grade 6 murmur, while one that is heard with the stethoscope
partially off the chest is a grade 5 murmur .




5. The nurse practitioner is reviewing the components of a
comprehensive health history. Which of the following is included in
the review of systems?

 A) Past surgical history
 B) Allergies
 C) Head, eyes, ears, nose, throat (HEENT) symptoms
 D) Family history

Answer: C) Head, eyes, ears, nose, throat (HEENT) symptoms

Rationale: The Review of Systems (ROS) is an inventory of body systems
obtained through a series of questions to identify signs and/or symptoms
the patient may be experiencing. HEENT symptoms are a part of this
systematic assessment, whereas past surgical history, allergies, and family
history are components of the past medical history and social history .

6. A 68-year-old retired truck driver comes to your office for
evaluation of swelling in his legs. He is a smoker and has been taking
medications to control his hypertension for the past 25 years. You are
concerned about his risk for peripheral vascular disease. Which of the
following tests are appropriate to order to initially evaluate for this
condition?

,  A) Venogram
 B) CT scan of the lower legs
 C) Ankle-brachial index (ABI)
 D) PET scan

Answer: C) Ankle-brachial index (ABI)

Rationale: The Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) is a simple, non-invasive, and
effective initial screening test for peripheral arterial disease (PAD). It
compares the blood pressure in the ankle to the blood pressure in the arm
and is the standard first-line test to evaluate for PAD in patients with risk
factors like smoking and hypertension.




7. Ms. Washington is a 67-year-old who had a heart attack last month.
Now she complains of shortness of breath and not being able to sleep
in a flat position (orthopnea). On examination you note increased
jugular venous pressure, an S3 gallop, crackles low in the lung fields,
and swollen ankles (edema). This is an example of a:

 A) Pathophysiologic problem
 B) Psychopathologic problem

Answer: A) Pathophysiologic problem

Rationale: The patient's symptoms (orthopnea, elevated JVP, S3 gallop,
crackles, edema) are classic manifestations of heart failure, which is a direct
physical consequence of the myocardial damage from her previous heart
attack. The problem is rooted in a physiological process (pathophysiology),
not a psychological one.

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