NR547 WEEK 4 EXAM V1 | NR547
DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS IN
PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH
ACROSS THE LIFESPAN PRACTICUM.
EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. A 32-year-old patient presents with a two-week history of depressed mood, insomnia,
weight loss, and feelings of worthlessness. According to the DSM-5-TR, how many symptoms
must be present to diagnose Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)?
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Seven
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: For a diagnosis of MDD, at least five symptoms must have been
present during the same 2-week period and represent a change from previous functioning,
with at least one symptom being either depressed mood or loss of interest/pleasure.
,2. In differentiating Bipolar I from Bipolar II Disorder, which of the following is the defining
characteristic of Bipolar I?
A. Occurrence of at least one hypomanic episode
B. Symptoms lasting for at least two years
C. Presence of severe depressive episodes
D. Occurrence of at least one manic episode
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Bipolar I Disorder requires the occurrence of at least one manic
episode. Bipolar II requires at least one hypomanic episode and one major depressive
episode, but never a manic episode.
3. A 24-year-old patient reports alternating periods of hypomanic symptoms and depressive
symptoms for the past 2.5 years. The symptoms have never met the full criteria for a manic
or major depressive episode. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bipolar I Disorder
B. Cyclothymic Disorder
C. Bipolar II Disorder
D. Persistent Depressive Disorder
Answer: B
, Conceptual Explanation: Cyclothymic Disorder is characterized by at least 2 years (1 year
in children/adolescents) of numerous periods with hypomanic symptoms that do not meet
criteria for a hypomanic episode and numerous periods with depressive symptoms that do
not meet criteria for a major depressive episode.
4. Which antidepressant is most strongly associated with a risk of seizures, particularly in
patients with eating disorders?
A. Sertraline
B. Fluoxetine
C. Venlafaxine
D. Bupropion
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Bupropion is contraindicated in patients with seizure disorders
and those with current or prior diagnoses of bulimia or anorexia nervosa due to an
increased risk of seizures.
5. A patient taking Lithium for Bipolar Disorder presents with coarse tremors, ataxia, and
confusion. What is the most likely cause?
A. Therapeutic side effect
B. Serotonin syndrome
C. Lithium toxicity
DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS IN
PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH
ACROSS THE LIFESPAN PRACTICUM.
EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. A 32-year-old patient presents with a two-week history of depressed mood, insomnia,
weight loss, and feelings of worthlessness. According to the DSM-5-TR, how many symptoms
must be present to diagnose Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)?
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Seven
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: For a diagnosis of MDD, at least five symptoms must have been
present during the same 2-week period and represent a change from previous functioning,
with at least one symptom being either depressed mood or loss of interest/pleasure.
,2. In differentiating Bipolar I from Bipolar II Disorder, which of the following is the defining
characteristic of Bipolar I?
A. Occurrence of at least one hypomanic episode
B. Symptoms lasting for at least two years
C. Presence of severe depressive episodes
D. Occurrence of at least one manic episode
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Bipolar I Disorder requires the occurrence of at least one manic
episode. Bipolar II requires at least one hypomanic episode and one major depressive
episode, but never a manic episode.
3. A 24-year-old patient reports alternating periods of hypomanic symptoms and depressive
symptoms for the past 2.5 years. The symptoms have never met the full criteria for a manic
or major depressive episode. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bipolar I Disorder
B. Cyclothymic Disorder
C. Bipolar II Disorder
D. Persistent Depressive Disorder
Answer: B
, Conceptual Explanation: Cyclothymic Disorder is characterized by at least 2 years (1 year
in children/adolescents) of numerous periods with hypomanic symptoms that do not meet
criteria for a hypomanic episode and numerous periods with depressive symptoms that do
not meet criteria for a major depressive episode.
4. Which antidepressant is most strongly associated with a risk of seizures, particularly in
patients with eating disorders?
A. Sertraline
B. Fluoxetine
C. Venlafaxine
D. Bupropion
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Bupropion is contraindicated in patients with seizure disorders
and those with current or prior diagnoses of bulimia or anorexia nervosa due to an
increased risk of seizures.
5. A patient taking Lithium for Bipolar Disorder presents with coarse tremors, ataxia, and
confusion. What is the most likely cause?
A. Therapeutic side effect
B. Serotonin syndrome
C. Lithium toxicity
