1
Utica College NUR 621 Final Exam Latest Update | Health
Promotion & Primary Care I | 200 Exam-Style Questions with
Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales | 100% Pass
Guaranteed | Graded A+
1 A 62-year-old patient presents with a wide area on the lower left leg that is warm, tender to
palpation, and erythematous. The nurse practitioner notes edema and peau d'orange
appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Diabetic ulcer
B. Cellulitis
C. Venous stasis dermatitis
D. Necrotizing fasciitis
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Cellulitis presents with localized erythema, warmth, tenderness, and edema.
The peau d'orange appearance and the wide area of involvement are characteristic of cellulitis.
A diabetic ulcer would show a break in the skin. Venous stasis dermatitis typically presents with
hemosiderin staining and scaling. Necrotizing fasciitis would present with severe pain out of
proportion to physical findings, systemic toxicity, and rapid progression.
, 2
2 A patient complains of fluctuating, unilateral hearing loss and dizziness. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Acoustic neuroma
B. Meniere's disease
C. Presbycusis
D. Conductive hearing loss
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Meniere's disease is characterized by fluctuating, unilateral sensorineural
hearing loss, episodic vertigo, tinnitus, and a sensation of aural fullness. Acoustic neuroma
typically presents with progressive unilateral hearing loss. Presbycusis is age-related bilateral
sensorineural hearing loss. Conductive hearing loss is associated with outer or middle ear
pathology.
3 A patient presents with sudden, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss. Which of the following
is the most appropriate initial management?
, 3
A. Reassurance and observation
B. Oral corticosteroids
C. Antibiotic therapy
D. Antihistamine therapy
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Sudden sensorineural hearing loss is an otologic emergency. The standard
treatment is a course of oral corticosteroids, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset.
Reassurance and observation are inappropriate. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is
evidence of infection. Antihistamines are not effective for sudden sensorineural hearing loss.
4 A 45-year-old patient presents with a red, tender nodule on the eyelid with a central purulent
point. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chalazion
B. Hordeolum (stye)
C. Basal cell carcinoma
D. Blepharitis
, 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A hordeolum (stye) is an acute infection of the eyelash follicle or meibomian
gland, presenting as a red, tender nodule with a central purulent point. A chalazion is a painless
nodule without acute inflammation. Basal cell carcinoma typically presents as a painless, pearly
nodule with telangiectasias. Blepharitis involves inflammation of the eyelid margins.
5 Which vaccine is recommended for adults aged 65 years and older to prevent herpes zoster?
A. Zostavax
B. Shingrix
C. Varivax
D. MMR
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Shingrix (recombinant zoster vaccine) is the preferred vaccine for prevention
of herpes zoster in adults aged 50 years and older. It is administered as a two-dose series.
Zostavax is a live attenuated vaccine that is no longer recommended in the US. Varivax is for
varicella prevention. MMR is for measles, mumps, and rubella.
Utica College NUR 621 Final Exam Latest Update | Health
Promotion & Primary Care I | 200 Exam-Style Questions with
Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales | 100% Pass
Guaranteed | Graded A+
1 A 62-year-old patient presents with a wide area on the lower left leg that is warm, tender to
palpation, and erythematous. The nurse practitioner notes edema and peau d'orange
appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Diabetic ulcer
B. Cellulitis
C. Venous stasis dermatitis
D. Necrotizing fasciitis
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Cellulitis presents with localized erythema, warmth, tenderness, and edema.
The peau d'orange appearance and the wide area of involvement are characteristic of cellulitis.
A diabetic ulcer would show a break in the skin. Venous stasis dermatitis typically presents with
hemosiderin staining and scaling. Necrotizing fasciitis would present with severe pain out of
proportion to physical findings, systemic toxicity, and rapid progression.
, 2
2 A patient complains of fluctuating, unilateral hearing loss and dizziness. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Acoustic neuroma
B. Meniere's disease
C. Presbycusis
D. Conductive hearing loss
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Meniere's disease is characterized by fluctuating, unilateral sensorineural
hearing loss, episodic vertigo, tinnitus, and a sensation of aural fullness. Acoustic neuroma
typically presents with progressive unilateral hearing loss. Presbycusis is age-related bilateral
sensorineural hearing loss. Conductive hearing loss is associated with outer or middle ear
pathology.
3 A patient presents with sudden, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss. Which of the following
is the most appropriate initial management?
, 3
A. Reassurance and observation
B. Oral corticosteroids
C. Antibiotic therapy
D. Antihistamine therapy
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Sudden sensorineural hearing loss is an otologic emergency. The standard
treatment is a course of oral corticosteroids, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset.
Reassurance and observation are inappropriate. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is
evidence of infection. Antihistamines are not effective for sudden sensorineural hearing loss.
4 A 45-year-old patient presents with a red, tender nodule on the eyelid with a central purulent
point. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chalazion
B. Hordeolum (stye)
C. Basal cell carcinoma
D. Blepharitis
, 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A hordeolum (stye) is an acute infection of the eyelash follicle or meibomian
gland, presenting as a red, tender nodule with a central purulent point. A chalazion is a painless
nodule without acute inflammation. Basal cell carcinoma typically presents as a painless, pearly
nodule with telangiectasias. Blepharitis involves inflammation of the eyelid margins.
5 Which vaccine is recommended for adults aged 65 years and older to prevent herpes zoster?
A. Zostavax
B. Shingrix
C. Varivax
D. MMR
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Shingrix (recombinant zoster vaccine) is the preferred vaccine for prevention
of herpes zoster in adults aged 50 years and older. It is administered as a two-dose series.
Zostavax is a live attenuated vaccine that is no longer recommended in the US. Varivax is for
varicella prevention. MMR is for measles, mumps, and rubella.
