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NSG 533 Exam 1 – Advanced Pharmacology Wilkes
University Graduate Nursing Questions 1–200: | 100%
Pass Guaranteed | Graded A+
1. A medication that binds to a receptor and produces a maximal response similar to the
endogenous ligand is classified as a:
A. Partial agonist
B. Full agonist
C. Antagonist
D. Inverse agonist
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A full agonist binds to the receptor and produces a maximal response, similar
to the endogenous ligand. A partial agonist (A) produces a submaximal response; an antagonist
(C) binds but produces no response; an inverse agonist (D) produces the opposite effect of an
agonist.
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2. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of a competitive
antagonist?
A. It binds to the same receptor site as the agonist and prevents agonist binding
B. It binds to a different site on the receptor and prevents the receptor from activating
C. It binds to the receptor and produces a submaximal response
D. It binds to the receptor and produces the opposite effect of the agonist
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A competitive antagonist binds to the same receptor site as the agonist,
preventing the agonist from binding and producing a response. Option B describes a non-
competitive antagonist; C describes a partial agonist; D describes an inverse agonist.
3. A drug has a half-life of 6 hours. Approximately how long will it take for the drug to reach
steady-state plasma concentrations?
A. 12 hours
B. 18 hours
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C. 24 hours
D. 30 hours
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Steady-state is typically achieved after approximately 4-5 half-lives. With a 6-
hour half-life, steady-state is reached in about 24-30 hours (4-5 × 6 hours). Options A, B, and C
are incorrect.
4. A patient is receiving a drug with a high first-pass effect. Which route of administration
would bypass this effect and achieve the highest bioavailability?
A. Oral
B. Intravenous
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intramuscular
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Intravenous administration bypasses the first-pass effect entirely because the
drug is delivered directly into the systemic circulation. Oral administration (A) undergoes first-
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pass metabolism in the liver; subcutaneous (C) and intramuscular (D) routes partially bypass
first-pass but are not as complete as IV.
5. Cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes are primarily responsible for:
A. Drug absorption
B. Drug distribution
C. Drug metabolism
D. Drug excretion
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Cytochrome P450 enzymes are a family of enzymes primarily responsible for
drug metabolism, particularly phase I reactions (oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis). Drug
absorption (A) occurs in the GI tract; distribution (B) involves transport in the blood; excretion
(D) occurs through the kidneys, liver, or lungs.
6. Which of the following CYP enzymes is responsible for the metabolism of approximately
50% of all clinically used drugs?
NSG 533 Exam 1 – Advanced Pharmacology Wilkes
University Graduate Nursing Questions 1–200: | 100%
Pass Guaranteed | Graded A+
1. A medication that binds to a receptor and produces a maximal response similar to the
endogenous ligand is classified as a:
A. Partial agonist
B. Full agonist
C. Antagonist
D. Inverse agonist
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A full agonist binds to the receptor and produces a maximal response, similar
to the endogenous ligand. A partial agonist (A) produces a submaximal response; an antagonist
(C) binds but produces no response; an inverse agonist (D) produces the opposite effect of an
agonist.
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2. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of a competitive
antagonist?
A. It binds to the same receptor site as the agonist and prevents agonist binding
B. It binds to a different site on the receptor and prevents the receptor from activating
C. It binds to the receptor and produces a submaximal response
D. It binds to the receptor and produces the opposite effect of the agonist
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A competitive antagonist binds to the same receptor site as the agonist,
preventing the agonist from binding and producing a response. Option B describes a non-
competitive antagonist; C describes a partial agonist; D describes an inverse agonist.
3. A drug has a half-life of 6 hours. Approximately how long will it take for the drug to reach
steady-state plasma concentrations?
A. 12 hours
B. 18 hours
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C. 24 hours
D. 30 hours
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Steady-state is typically achieved after approximately 4-5 half-lives. With a 6-
hour half-life, steady-state is reached in about 24-30 hours (4-5 × 6 hours). Options A, B, and C
are incorrect.
4. A patient is receiving a drug with a high first-pass effect. Which route of administration
would bypass this effect and achieve the highest bioavailability?
A. Oral
B. Intravenous
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intramuscular
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Intravenous administration bypasses the first-pass effect entirely because the
drug is delivered directly into the systemic circulation. Oral administration (A) undergoes first-
, 4
pass metabolism in the liver; subcutaneous (C) and intramuscular (D) routes partially bypass
first-pass but are not as complete as IV.
5. Cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes are primarily responsible for:
A. Drug absorption
B. Drug distribution
C. Drug metabolism
D. Drug excretion
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Cytochrome P450 enzymes are a family of enzymes primarily responsible for
drug metabolism, particularly phase I reactions (oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis). Drug
absorption (A) occurs in the GI tract; distribution (B) involves transport in the blood; excretion
(D) occurs through the kidneys, liver, or lungs.
6. Which of the following CYP enzymes is responsible for the metabolism of approximately
50% of all clinically used drugs?
