ANCC FNP
Board-Prep Qs & Review Terms
900+ Prep Qs & Review Terms
Board-Exam Preparation
Main Features:
• Focused ANCC FNP board-exam review
• Board-Prep Questions and Review Terms
• Extensive collection of practice questions
• Helpful for identifying knowledge gaps
• Covers high-yield concepts
• Supports structured study and final revision
,1. An older adult reports waking up that morning with one side of his face paralyzed.
Complains of difficulty chewing and swallowing food on the same side. Unable to fully
close eyelid on affected side.
Answer: Bell’s Palsy
2. An 18-year-old female patient is being followed up for acne by the nurse practitioner.
During the facial exam, papules and pustules are noted mostly on the forehead and the
chin areas. The patient has been using over-the-counter topical antibiotic gels and
medicated soap daily for 6 months without much improvement. The nurse practitioner
will recommend:
A. Isotretinoin (Accutane)
B. Tetracycline (Sumycin)
C. Clindamycin topical solution (Cleocin T)
D. Minoxidil (Rogaine)
Correct Answer: B - Tetracycline (Sumycin)
Rationale: First-line treatment for acne vulgaris includes over-the-counter medicated soap
and water with topical antibiotic gels. The next step in treatment would be the initiation of oral
tetracycline.
,3. Which diagnosis describes a chronic disease of the apocrine follicles and glands,
characterized by clusters of abscesses and pustules in the axilla, groin, and perianal
area?
A. Mulloscum contagiosum
B. Hidradenitis suppurativa
C. Folliculitis
D. Furuncle
Correct Answer: B - Hidradenitis suppurativa
Rationale: Hidradenitis suppurativa is a chronic disease and recurrent inflammatory disorder
of the apocrine glands that results in painful pustules, nodules, and abscesses in areas such
as the axilla, groin, perianal, and mammary areas. It is more common in women; risk factors
include obesity and a history of smoking. Mulloscum contagiosum is a relatively common viral
infection of the skin that results in round, firm, painless bumps ranging in size from a pinhead
to a pencil eraser. Folliculitis is a common skin condition in which hair follicles become
inflamed. It is usually caused by a bacterial or fungal infection. At first, it may look like small
red bumps or white headed pimples around hair follicles. It is not a chronic condition. A
furuncle, also known as a boil, is a painful infection that forms around a hair follicle and
contains pus. It is not a chronic condition.
4. A child diagnosed with eczema was treated with over-the-counter 1% hydrocortisone
ointment. During a follow-up visit, the mother reports that the rash does not seem to be
improving. What level steroid should the nurse practitioner prescribe next?
A. Group 6
B. Group 5
C. Group 4
D. Group 3
Correct Answer: A - Group 6
Rationale: The patient is currently using a potency Group 7 (over-thecounter topical
hydrocortisone, 0.5%–1.0%) for eczema. The nurse practitioner should prescribe the next
level of topical steroids, a Group 6, such as desonide cream or lotion (0.05%) and then
reevaluate for effectiveness. The topical steroid strengths range from 7 (least potent) to 1
(very potent). For example, a Group 5 is fluticasone propionate cream (0.05%), a Group 4 is
triamcinolone acetonide cream (0.1%), and a Group 3 is amcinonide (0.1%). Children should
not be prescribed topical steroids for more than 2 weeks.
, 5. A patient has several well-defined, primary lesions <20 mm over the trunk and
extremities. After completing a dermascopic exam, the nurse practitioner diagnoses
Bowen's disease. Which treatment will the nurse practitioner recommend?
A. Moh's surgery
B. Radiation therapy
C. Curettage and electrodessication
D. Standard excision
Correct Answer: C - Curettage and electrodessication
Rationale: The patient has Bowen’s disease, a squamous cell cancer (SCC) of the epidermis
that has not invaded the dermis yet. Curettage and electrodessication is an efficient, cost-
effective method with low complication rates. Surgical treatments such as a standard excision
(95% removal) and Moh’s surgery (100% removal) are more invasive, and there is a greater
risk for complications, especially in the elderly. Radiation therapy is not indicated for low-risk
lesions.
6. The nurse practitioner is conducting a health history on a 39-year-old male patient with
necrotic ulcers on his arms, face, and neck. The patient reveals that he is a livestock
farmer. The nurse practitioner will:
A. Isolate the patient in an examination room
B. Administer the anthrax vaccine adsorbed (AVA)
C. Prescribe ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
D. Send a blood sample to the state lab and Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
(CDC)
Correct Answer: D - Send a blood sample to the state lab and Centers for Disease
Rationale: Control and Prevention (CDC) A patient with suspected cutaneous anthrax
requires a blood test to confirm Bacillus anthracis (grampositive rods). The blood sample
should be sent to the state lab and the CDC for confirmation. Because anthrax is not
contagious, there is no need to isolate the patient in an examination room. The anthrax
vaccine is administered to specifi c populations (18 to 65 years), such as military personnel,
veterinarians, and people who work with specific animals or in slaughterhouses. Once the
diagnosis is confirmed and course of antibiotics completed, the vaccine can be administered.
Board-Prep Qs & Review Terms
900+ Prep Qs & Review Terms
Board-Exam Preparation
Main Features:
• Focused ANCC FNP board-exam review
• Board-Prep Questions and Review Terms
• Extensive collection of practice questions
• Helpful for identifying knowledge gaps
• Covers high-yield concepts
• Supports structured study and final revision
,1. An older adult reports waking up that morning with one side of his face paralyzed.
Complains of difficulty chewing and swallowing food on the same side. Unable to fully
close eyelid on affected side.
Answer: Bell’s Palsy
2. An 18-year-old female patient is being followed up for acne by the nurse practitioner.
During the facial exam, papules and pustules are noted mostly on the forehead and the
chin areas. The patient has been using over-the-counter topical antibiotic gels and
medicated soap daily for 6 months without much improvement. The nurse practitioner
will recommend:
A. Isotretinoin (Accutane)
B. Tetracycline (Sumycin)
C. Clindamycin topical solution (Cleocin T)
D. Minoxidil (Rogaine)
Correct Answer: B - Tetracycline (Sumycin)
Rationale: First-line treatment for acne vulgaris includes over-the-counter medicated soap
and water with topical antibiotic gels. The next step in treatment would be the initiation of oral
tetracycline.
,3. Which diagnosis describes a chronic disease of the apocrine follicles and glands,
characterized by clusters of abscesses and pustules in the axilla, groin, and perianal
area?
A. Mulloscum contagiosum
B. Hidradenitis suppurativa
C. Folliculitis
D. Furuncle
Correct Answer: B - Hidradenitis suppurativa
Rationale: Hidradenitis suppurativa is a chronic disease and recurrent inflammatory disorder
of the apocrine glands that results in painful pustules, nodules, and abscesses in areas such
as the axilla, groin, perianal, and mammary areas. It is more common in women; risk factors
include obesity and a history of smoking. Mulloscum contagiosum is a relatively common viral
infection of the skin that results in round, firm, painless bumps ranging in size from a pinhead
to a pencil eraser. Folliculitis is a common skin condition in which hair follicles become
inflamed. It is usually caused by a bacterial or fungal infection. At first, it may look like small
red bumps or white headed pimples around hair follicles. It is not a chronic condition. A
furuncle, also known as a boil, is a painful infection that forms around a hair follicle and
contains pus. It is not a chronic condition.
4. A child diagnosed with eczema was treated with over-the-counter 1% hydrocortisone
ointment. During a follow-up visit, the mother reports that the rash does not seem to be
improving. What level steroid should the nurse practitioner prescribe next?
A. Group 6
B. Group 5
C. Group 4
D. Group 3
Correct Answer: A - Group 6
Rationale: The patient is currently using a potency Group 7 (over-thecounter topical
hydrocortisone, 0.5%–1.0%) for eczema. The nurse practitioner should prescribe the next
level of topical steroids, a Group 6, such as desonide cream or lotion (0.05%) and then
reevaluate for effectiveness. The topical steroid strengths range from 7 (least potent) to 1
(very potent). For example, a Group 5 is fluticasone propionate cream (0.05%), a Group 4 is
triamcinolone acetonide cream (0.1%), and a Group 3 is amcinonide (0.1%). Children should
not be prescribed topical steroids for more than 2 weeks.
, 5. A patient has several well-defined, primary lesions <20 mm over the trunk and
extremities. After completing a dermascopic exam, the nurse practitioner diagnoses
Bowen's disease. Which treatment will the nurse practitioner recommend?
A. Moh's surgery
B. Radiation therapy
C. Curettage and electrodessication
D. Standard excision
Correct Answer: C - Curettage and electrodessication
Rationale: The patient has Bowen’s disease, a squamous cell cancer (SCC) of the epidermis
that has not invaded the dermis yet. Curettage and electrodessication is an efficient, cost-
effective method with low complication rates. Surgical treatments such as a standard excision
(95% removal) and Moh’s surgery (100% removal) are more invasive, and there is a greater
risk for complications, especially in the elderly. Radiation therapy is not indicated for low-risk
lesions.
6. The nurse practitioner is conducting a health history on a 39-year-old male patient with
necrotic ulcers on his arms, face, and neck. The patient reveals that he is a livestock
farmer. The nurse practitioner will:
A. Isolate the patient in an examination room
B. Administer the anthrax vaccine adsorbed (AVA)
C. Prescribe ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
D. Send a blood sample to the state lab and Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
(CDC)
Correct Answer: D - Send a blood sample to the state lab and Centers for Disease
Rationale: Control and Prevention (CDC) A patient with suspected cutaneous anthrax
requires a blood test to confirm Bacillus anthracis (grampositive rods). The blood sample
should be sent to the state lab and the CDC for confirmation. Because anthrax is not
contagious, there is no need to isolate the patient in an examination room. The anthrax
vaccine is administered to specifi c populations (18 to 65 years), such as military personnel,
veterinarians, and people who work with specific animals or in slaughterhouses. Once the
diagnosis is confirmed and course of antibiotics completed, the vaccine can be administered.
