CJE WOMEN'S HEALTH EXAMnNEWEST 2026/2027
ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK 150+ Multiple Choice
Questions with CORRECT ANSWERs & Detailed
Rationales
SECTION 1: GYNECOLOGICAL HEALTH & ASSESSMENT (Questions 1-30)
1. A 52-year-old patient reports urinary leakage when coughing, sneezing, and
exercising. She denies urgency or nocturia. Which type of urinary incontinence is most
likely?
A. Urge incontinence
B. Stress incontinence
C. Overflow incontinence
D. Functional incontinence
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Stress incontinence
Rationale: Stress urinary incontinence results from weakened pelvic floor support or
urethral sphincter dysfunction, causing leakage with increased intra-abdominal
pressure from coughing, sneezing, or exercise. Urge incontinence involves sudden
urgency with involuntary loss. Overflow occurs from bladder retention and incomplete
emptying. Functional incontinence results from physical or cognitive barriers preventing
timely toileting .
2. A 30-year-old patient receiving fertility treatment develops severe abdominal pain,
rapid weight gain, nausea, and shortness of breath. Ultrasound shows enlarged ovaries
with significant fluid accumulation. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
B. Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome
,C. Uterine Fibroids
D. Menopause
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome (OHSS)
Rationale: OHSS is a complication of fertility treatments involving ovarian stimulation. It
occurs due to increased vascular permeability, causing fluid shifts, enlarged ovaries,
ascites, abdominal pain, weight gain, and possible respiratory compromise. PID is
infectious, fibroids are benign uterine tumors, and menopause does not occur as a
complication of fertility medication .
3. Which contraceptive method is contraindicated for a woman with a history of toxic
shock syndrome?
A. Oral contraceptives
B. Diaphragm
C. Spermicidal foam
D. Male condom
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Diaphragm
Rationale: The diaphragm is contraindicated for women with a history of toxic shock
syndrome due to the increased risk of recurrence. Spermicidal foam, oral
contraceptives, and male condoms do not carry the same contraindication .
4. A 27-year-old patient asks about the most effective emergency contraception after
unprotected intercourse 4 days ago. She desires a method that also provides ongoing
contraception. Which option is most appropriate?
A. Copper IUD
B. Condom
C. Diaphragm
,D. Spermicide
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Copper IUD
Rationale: The copper intrauterine device is the most effective form of emergency
contraception when inserted within the appropriate time frame after unprotected
intercourse and provides long-term contraception afterward. Barrier methods and
spermicides have lower effectiveness and do not provide reliable emergency
contraception .
5. A 60-year-old patient presents for routine gynecologic care with a new diagnosis of
osteoporosis risk due to menopause and decreased estrogen levels. Which intervention
best reduces fracture risk?
A. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation
B. Bed rest
C. High sodium diet
D. Estrogen only therapy
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation
Rationale: Adequate calcium and vitamin D intake supports bone mineralization and
reduces fracture risk in postmenopausal patients. Weight-bearing exercise is also
recommended. Prolonged bed rest accelerates bone loss. High sodium intake
increases calcium excretion. Estrogen therapy may have risks and is not routinely used
solely for osteoporosis prevention .
6. When teaching a woman about taking alendronate (Fosamax), the nurse should
instruct her to take it:
A. With 8 oz of milk just before bedtime
B. With 8 oz of water and remain upright for half an hour
C. In a single dose that does not exceed 500 mg
, D. As a nasal spray taken twice a day after a meal
CORRECT ANSWER: B. With 8 oz of water and remain upright for half an hour
Rationale: Alendronate must be taken with a full glass of water and the patient must
remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation and ulceration.
Milk and food interfere with absorption. It is not available as a nasal spray .
7. A risk factor for pelvic inflammatory disease is:
A. Presence of uterine leiomyomas
B. Use of the hormone implant contraceptive
C. Persistent Candida albicans vaginal infections
D. History of multiple sexual partners
CORRECT ANSWER: D. History of multiple sexual partners
Rationale: Multiple sexual partners increase the risk of sexually transmitted infections,
which are the primary cause of pelvic inflammatory disease. Uterine leiomyomas,
hormone implants, and Candida infections are not risk factors for PID .
8. The optimal time to perform a breast self-examination for a woman who is
menstruating is approximately:
A. Halfway between menstrual periods
B. 1 week after each menstrual period
C. 3 days before the start of each menstrual period
D. Halfway through the menstrual period
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 1 week after each menstrual period
ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK 150+ Multiple Choice
Questions with CORRECT ANSWERs & Detailed
Rationales
SECTION 1: GYNECOLOGICAL HEALTH & ASSESSMENT (Questions 1-30)
1. A 52-year-old patient reports urinary leakage when coughing, sneezing, and
exercising. She denies urgency or nocturia. Which type of urinary incontinence is most
likely?
A. Urge incontinence
B. Stress incontinence
C. Overflow incontinence
D. Functional incontinence
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Stress incontinence
Rationale: Stress urinary incontinence results from weakened pelvic floor support or
urethral sphincter dysfunction, causing leakage with increased intra-abdominal
pressure from coughing, sneezing, or exercise. Urge incontinence involves sudden
urgency with involuntary loss. Overflow occurs from bladder retention and incomplete
emptying. Functional incontinence results from physical or cognitive barriers preventing
timely toileting .
2. A 30-year-old patient receiving fertility treatment develops severe abdominal pain,
rapid weight gain, nausea, and shortness of breath. Ultrasound shows enlarged ovaries
with significant fluid accumulation. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
B. Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome
,C. Uterine Fibroids
D. Menopause
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome (OHSS)
Rationale: OHSS is a complication of fertility treatments involving ovarian stimulation. It
occurs due to increased vascular permeability, causing fluid shifts, enlarged ovaries,
ascites, abdominal pain, weight gain, and possible respiratory compromise. PID is
infectious, fibroids are benign uterine tumors, and menopause does not occur as a
complication of fertility medication .
3. Which contraceptive method is contraindicated for a woman with a history of toxic
shock syndrome?
A. Oral contraceptives
B. Diaphragm
C. Spermicidal foam
D. Male condom
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Diaphragm
Rationale: The diaphragm is contraindicated for women with a history of toxic shock
syndrome due to the increased risk of recurrence. Spermicidal foam, oral
contraceptives, and male condoms do not carry the same contraindication .
4. A 27-year-old patient asks about the most effective emergency contraception after
unprotected intercourse 4 days ago. She desires a method that also provides ongoing
contraception. Which option is most appropriate?
A. Copper IUD
B. Condom
C. Diaphragm
,D. Spermicide
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Copper IUD
Rationale: The copper intrauterine device is the most effective form of emergency
contraception when inserted within the appropriate time frame after unprotected
intercourse and provides long-term contraception afterward. Barrier methods and
spermicides have lower effectiveness and do not provide reliable emergency
contraception .
5. A 60-year-old patient presents for routine gynecologic care with a new diagnosis of
osteoporosis risk due to menopause and decreased estrogen levels. Which intervention
best reduces fracture risk?
A. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation
B. Bed rest
C. High sodium diet
D. Estrogen only therapy
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation
Rationale: Adequate calcium and vitamin D intake supports bone mineralization and
reduces fracture risk in postmenopausal patients. Weight-bearing exercise is also
recommended. Prolonged bed rest accelerates bone loss. High sodium intake
increases calcium excretion. Estrogen therapy may have risks and is not routinely used
solely for osteoporosis prevention .
6. When teaching a woman about taking alendronate (Fosamax), the nurse should
instruct her to take it:
A. With 8 oz of milk just before bedtime
B. With 8 oz of water and remain upright for half an hour
C. In a single dose that does not exceed 500 mg
, D. As a nasal spray taken twice a day after a meal
CORRECT ANSWER: B. With 8 oz of water and remain upright for half an hour
Rationale: Alendronate must be taken with a full glass of water and the patient must
remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation and ulceration.
Milk and food interfere with absorption. It is not available as a nasal spray .
7. A risk factor for pelvic inflammatory disease is:
A. Presence of uterine leiomyomas
B. Use of the hormone implant contraceptive
C. Persistent Candida albicans vaginal infections
D. History of multiple sexual partners
CORRECT ANSWER: D. History of multiple sexual partners
Rationale: Multiple sexual partners increase the risk of sexually transmitted infections,
which are the primary cause of pelvic inflammatory disease. Uterine leiomyomas,
hormone implants, and Candida infections are not risk factors for PID .
8. The optimal time to perform a breast self-examination for a woman who is
menstruating is approximately:
A. Halfway between menstrual periods
B. 1 week after each menstrual period
C. 3 days before the start of each menstrual period
D. Halfway through the menstrual period
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 1 week after each menstrual period
