NUR 230 COMPREHENSIVE MATERNAL
NURSING ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS
1. A client’s last menstrual period began on May 10th. Using Nagele’s rule, what is the
estimated date of birth (EDB)?
A. March 10th
B. February 3rd
C. August 17th
D. February 17th
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Nagele’s rule is calculated by subtracting 3 months from the first
day of the last menstrual period and adding 7 days and 1 year (May 10 minus 3 months is
February 10, plus 7 days is February 17).
2. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 20 weeks gestation. Which of the following
findings should the nurse report to the provider as a potential complication?
A. Epigastric pain or severe frontal headache
B. Dependent edema in the ankles by the end of the day
,C. Periodic numbness in the fingers
D. Increased vaginal discharge (leukorrhea)
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Epigastric pain and severe headaches are clinical manifestations
of preeclampsia and require immediate follow-up. The other options are common
discomforts of pregnancy.
3. Which of the following describes a ‘probable’ sign of pregnancy?
A. Fetal heart tones heard via Doppler
B. Amenorrhea and morning sickness
C. Positive pregnancy test and Goodell’s sign
D. Quickening and breast tenderness
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Probable signs are objective findings observed by the examiner
(e.g., positive pregnancy test, Goodell’s sign, Chadwick’s sign). Fetal heart tones are
‘positive’ signs. Amenorrhea and quickening are ‘presumptive’ signs.
4. A nurse is reviewing the GTPAL of a client who is currently pregnant, has a 3-year-old born
at 39 weeks, and had a miscarriage at 10 weeks. What is the correct GTPAL?
A. G3 T2 P0 A0 L2
B. G2 T1 P0 A1 L1
, C. G3 T1 P0 A1 L1
D. G3 T0 P1 A1 L1
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: G (Gravida) = 3 (current, 3-year-old, miscarriage); T (Term) = 1
(3-year-old at 39 weeks); P (Preterm) = 0; A (Abortion/miscarriage) = 1; L (Living) = 1.
5. What is the primary purpose of administering Magnesium Sulfate to a client with
preeclampsia?
A. To lower the maternal blood pressure
B. To increase urine output and renal perfusion
C. To prevent seizures (eclamptic convulsions)
D. To induce labor contractions
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Magnesium Sulfate is a CNS depressant used primarily for
seizure prophylaxis in preeclampsia. While it may slightly lower BP, that is not its primary
purpose.
6. A client at 32 weeks gestation is diagnosed with placenta previa. Which of the following is
a classic clinical manifestation?
A. Rigid, board-like abdomen
B. Severe, constant abdominal pain
NURSING ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS
1. A client’s last menstrual period began on May 10th. Using Nagele’s rule, what is the
estimated date of birth (EDB)?
A. March 10th
B. February 3rd
C. August 17th
D. February 17th
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Nagele’s rule is calculated by subtracting 3 months from the first
day of the last menstrual period and adding 7 days and 1 year (May 10 minus 3 months is
February 10, plus 7 days is February 17).
2. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 20 weeks gestation. Which of the following
findings should the nurse report to the provider as a potential complication?
A. Epigastric pain or severe frontal headache
B. Dependent edema in the ankles by the end of the day
,C. Periodic numbness in the fingers
D. Increased vaginal discharge (leukorrhea)
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Epigastric pain and severe headaches are clinical manifestations
of preeclampsia and require immediate follow-up. The other options are common
discomforts of pregnancy.
3. Which of the following describes a ‘probable’ sign of pregnancy?
A. Fetal heart tones heard via Doppler
B. Amenorrhea and morning sickness
C. Positive pregnancy test and Goodell’s sign
D. Quickening and breast tenderness
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Probable signs are objective findings observed by the examiner
(e.g., positive pregnancy test, Goodell’s sign, Chadwick’s sign). Fetal heart tones are
‘positive’ signs. Amenorrhea and quickening are ‘presumptive’ signs.
4. A nurse is reviewing the GTPAL of a client who is currently pregnant, has a 3-year-old born
at 39 weeks, and had a miscarriage at 10 weeks. What is the correct GTPAL?
A. G3 T2 P0 A0 L2
B. G2 T1 P0 A1 L1
, C. G3 T1 P0 A1 L1
D. G3 T0 P1 A1 L1
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: G (Gravida) = 3 (current, 3-year-old, miscarriage); T (Term) = 1
(3-year-old at 39 weeks); P (Preterm) = 0; A (Abortion/miscarriage) = 1; L (Living) = 1.
5. What is the primary purpose of administering Magnesium Sulfate to a client with
preeclampsia?
A. To lower the maternal blood pressure
B. To increase urine output and renal perfusion
C. To prevent seizures (eclamptic convulsions)
D. To induce labor contractions
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Magnesium Sulfate is a CNS depressant used primarily for
seizure prophylaxis in preeclampsia. While it may slightly lower BP, that is not its primary
purpose.
6. A client at 32 weeks gestation is diagnosed with placenta previa. Which of the following is
a classic clinical manifestation?
A. Rigid, board-like abdomen
B. Severe, constant abdominal pain
