,NURS 251 Pharmacology Module Exam 1 | Portage Learning /
ABCnursing / Geneva College | 2026 Edition (PDF)
1. A patient recently started a new medication and reports a dry mouth. The patient mentions this is not
a problem and they are managing it by increasing water intake. Which term best describes the dry
mouth this patient is experiencing?
A) Toxic effect
B) Therapeutic effect
C) Side effect
D) Adverse effect
Correct Answer: Side effect
Rationale: A side effect is a predictable, secondary, and often mild effect of a drug that is not the
primary therapeutic goal. Dry mouth is a known, expected, and manageable side effect of many
medications. A toxic effect is harmful, an adverse effect is a harmful or unintended response, and a
therapeutic effect is the desired outcome.
2. The site within a cell where a drug binds to exert its therapeutic effect is known as the:
A) Receptor
B) Enzyme
C) Ion channel
D) Transporter
Correct Answer: Receptor
Rationale: Receptors are specific protein molecules on or within cells to which drugs bind to initiate their
pharmacological effects. Enzymes, ion channels, and transporters can also be drug targets, but the term
"receptor" specifically refers to the binding site that mediates the drug's therapeutic action.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication that has a high first-pass effect. Which route of
administration would most effectively bypass this effect?
,A) Oral
B) Sublingual
C) Intravenous
D) Rectal
Correct Answer: Intravenous
Rationale: The first-pass effect refers to the metabolism of a drug in the liver before it reaches systemic
circulation. The intravenous route delivers the drug directly into the bloodstream, completely bypassing
this hepatic metabolism. While sublingual and rectal routes partially bypass it, intravenous
administration is the most effective.
4. A nurse is calculating the half-life of a medication. The client received a dose of 200 mg at 0800, and
by 1400 the serum concentration is 50 mg. What is the approximate half-life of this drug?
A) 2 hours
B) 3 hours
C) 4 hours
D) 6 hours
Correct Answer: 3 hours
Rationale: Half-life is the time required for the serum concentration of a drug to decrease by 50%. From
0800 to 1400 is 6 hours. The drug went from 200 mg to 100 mg (one half-life) and then from 100 mg to
50 mg (a second half-life). Therefore, two half-lives occurred in 6 hours, making each half-life
approximately 3 hours.
5. The nurse is teaching a patient about a newly prescribed medication. Which statement by the patient
indicates an understanding of the generic name of a drug?
A) "The generic name is the brand name given by the manufacturer."
B) "The generic name is the official, non-proprietary name of the drug."
C) "The generic name is always capitalized."
D) "The generic name is the chemical structure of the drug."
, Correct Answer: "The generic name is the official, non-proprietary name of the drug."
Rationale: The generic name is the official, non-proprietary name assigned to a drug by the United
States Adopted Names (USAN) Council. It is not capitalized and is distinct from the brand (trade) name,
which is proprietary, and the chemical name, which describes the molecular structure.
6. A client is prescribed a medication that is available in the form of a troche. How does the nurse
correctly administer this medication?
A) Swallow the medication whole with a glass of water
B) Allow the medication to dissolve in the mouth
C) Insert the medication into the rectum
D) Apply the medication to the skin
Correct Answer: Allow the medication to dissolve in the mouth
Rationale: A troche (or lozenge) is a solid, flat, disk-shaped dosage form that is placed in the mouth and
allowed to dissolve slowly. This allows for local or systemic absorption through the buccal mucosa. It is
not swallowed, inserted rectally, or applied topically.
7. A nurse is reviewing the FDA pregnancy categories for a patient who is pregnant. Which category
indicates that adequate studies in pregnant women have demonstrated a risk to the fetus?
A) Category A
B) Category B
C) Category C
D) Category D
Correct Answer: Category D
Rationale: FDA Pregnancy Category D indicates that there is positive evidence of human fetal risk based
on adverse reaction data from investigational or marketing experience or studies in humans. Category A
has no risk, Category B has no evidence of risk in humans, and Category C has risk cannot be ruled out.
ABCnursing / Geneva College | 2026 Edition (PDF)
1. A patient recently started a new medication and reports a dry mouth. The patient mentions this is not
a problem and they are managing it by increasing water intake. Which term best describes the dry
mouth this patient is experiencing?
A) Toxic effect
B) Therapeutic effect
C) Side effect
D) Adverse effect
Correct Answer: Side effect
Rationale: A side effect is a predictable, secondary, and often mild effect of a drug that is not the
primary therapeutic goal. Dry mouth is a known, expected, and manageable side effect of many
medications. A toxic effect is harmful, an adverse effect is a harmful or unintended response, and a
therapeutic effect is the desired outcome.
2. The site within a cell where a drug binds to exert its therapeutic effect is known as the:
A) Receptor
B) Enzyme
C) Ion channel
D) Transporter
Correct Answer: Receptor
Rationale: Receptors are specific protein molecules on or within cells to which drugs bind to initiate their
pharmacological effects. Enzymes, ion channels, and transporters can also be drug targets, but the term
"receptor" specifically refers to the binding site that mediates the drug's therapeutic action.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication that has a high first-pass effect. Which route of
administration would most effectively bypass this effect?
,A) Oral
B) Sublingual
C) Intravenous
D) Rectal
Correct Answer: Intravenous
Rationale: The first-pass effect refers to the metabolism of a drug in the liver before it reaches systemic
circulation. The intravenous route delivers the drug directly into the bloodstream, completely bypassing
this hepatic metabolism. While sublingual and rectal routes partially bypass it, intravenous
administration is the most effective.
4. A nurse is calculating the half-life of a medication. The client received a dose of 200 mg at 0800, and
by 1400 the serum concentration is 50 mg. What is the approximate half-life of this drug?
A) 2 hours
B) 3 hours
C) 4 hours
D) 6 hours
Correct Answer: 3 hours
Rationale: Half-life is the time required for the serum concentration of a drug to decrease by 50%. From
0800 to 1400 is 6 hours. The drug went from 200 mg to 100 mg (one half-life) and then from 100 mg to
50 mg (a second half-life). Therefore, two half-lives occurred in 6 hours, making each half-life
approximately 3 hours.
5. The nurse is teaching a patient about a newly prescribed medication. Which statement by the patient
indicates an understanding of the generic name of a drug?
A) "The generic name is the brand name given by the manufacturer."
B) "The generic name is the official, non-proprietary name of the drug."
C) "The generic name is always capitalized."
D) "The generic name is the chemical structure of the drug."
, Correct Answer: "The generic name is the official, non-proprietary name of the drug."
Rationale: The generic name is the official, non-proprietary name assigned to a drug by the United
States Adopted Names (USAN) Council. It is not capitalized and is distinct from the brand (trade) name,
which is proprietary, and the chemical name, which describes the molecular structure.
6. A client is prescribed a medication that is available in the form of a troche. How does the nurse
correctly administer this medication?
A) Swallow the medication whole with a glass of water
B) Allow the medication to dissolve in the mouth
C) Insert the medication into the rectum
D) Apply the medication to the skin
Correct Answer: Allow the medication to dissolve in the mouth
Rationale: A troche (or lozenge) is a solid, flat, disk-shaped dosage form that is placed in the mouth and
allowed to dissolve slowly. This allows for local or systemic absorption through the buccal mucosa. It is
not swallowed, inserted rectally, or applied topically.
7. A nurse is reviewing the FDA pregnancy categories for a patient who is pregnant. Which category
indicates that adequate studies in pregnant women have demonstrated a risk to the fetus?
A) Category A
B) Category B
C) Category C
D) Category D
Correct Answer: Category D
Rationale: FDA Pregnancy Category D indicates that there is positive evidence of human fetal risk based
on adverse reaction data from investigational or marketing experience or studies in humans. Category A
has no risk, Category B has no evidence of risk in humans, and Category C has risk cannot be ruled out.
