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HESI EXIT NGN RN Exit Exam with Accurate Questions & Answers (Verified Answers) and Deep Expert Rationales | Latest (2026/2027) Updated Version

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HESI EXIT NGN RN Exit Exam with Accurate Questions & Answers (Verified Answers) and Deep Expert Rationales | Latest (2026/2027) Updated Version

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HESI
HESI EXIT NGN RN Exit Exam with Accurate Questions & Answers
(Verified Answers) and Deep Expert Rationales | Latest (2026/2027)
Updated Version



THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS:


❖HESI EXIT NGN RN Exit Exam


❖Accurate Questions & Answers (Verified Answers)


❖Deep Expert Rationales


❖Latest (2026/2027) Updated Version


❖100% Guaranteed Pass

,Question 1
When exiting a isolation room while wearing personal protective equipment
(PPE), which item should the nurse remove first?
• A. Mask or N95 respirator
• B. Gloves
• C. Gown
• D. Face shield / Goggles
Correct Answer: B. Gloves
Expert Rationale: Gloves are considered the most heavily contaminated item of PPE
because they come into direct contact with the patient, infectious body fluids, or
contaminated environmental surfaces. Removing gloves first prevents cross-
contamination of other PPE or personal clothing/skin while removing the remaining
gear. According to CDC guidelines, the standard sequence for PPE removal is: Gloves
$\rightarrow$ Face Shield/Goggles $\rightarrow$ Gown $\rightarrow$
Mask/Respirator, followed immediately by thorough hand hygiene.
Question 2
An older adult client is brought to the Emergency Department with a sudden onset
of confusion following a fall at home. The client's daughter, who holds healthcare
power of attorney, brings the client's current medication bottles. When reporting
to the healthcare provider using SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment,
Recommendation) communication, which information should the nurse present
first?
• A. The daughter holds healthcare power of attorney.
• B. The client’s current list of home prescriptions.
• C. The client’s sudden onset of increasing confusion.
• D. The home fall that triggered the admission.
Correct Answer: C. The client’s sudden onset of increasing confusion.
Expert Rationale: The "S" in SBAR stands for Situation, which requires a concise
statement of the immediate acute problem or reason for calling. The primary acute
change requiring immediate medical evaluation is the client's acute encephalopathy /
sudden confusion. The fall mechanism (Background), home medications (Background),
and power of attorney status (Background/Context) follow logically after stating the core
acute situation.

,Question 3
A client presses the call bell and requests pain medication for a severe headache.
To assess the quality of the client's pain, which approach should the nurse use?
• A. Provide a numeric 0-to-10 pain intensity scale.
• B. Observe the client's body language, facial expressions, and movement.
• C. Ask the client to describe what the pain feels like in their own words.
• D. Identify past pain relief measures that were effective.
Correct Answer: C. Ask the client to describe what the pain feels like in their own
words.
Expert Rationale: Pain quality refers to the specific sensory characteristics of the pain
(e.g., sharp, throbbing, burning, dull, aching, crushing). Asking open-ended questions
like "Describe what the pain feels like" allows the client to describe these characteristics
directly.
• Option A assesses pain intensity/severity, not quality.
• Option B provides objective behavioral cues but does not define quality.
• Option D evaluates history/treatment response.
Question 4
A client reports working out with a personal trainer and swimming three times
per week to lose weight and improve sleep. However, the client notes that it still
takes several hours to fall asleep at night. Which action should the nurse
implement first?
• A. Advise the client that lifestyle changes often take several weeks to take effect.
• B. Ask the client to describe the exact timing and schedule of the exercise
routine.
• C. Encourage the client to exercise daily to eliminate nighttime wakefulness.
• D. Measure the client’s total weight loss since starting the new routine.
Correct Answer: B. Ask the client to describe the exact timing and schedule of the
exercise routine.
Expert Rationale: Rigorous physical exercise stimulates the sympathetic nervous
system, increases core body temperature, and elevates adrenal hormones (cortisol,
catecholamines). If vigorous exercise occurs within 2 to 4 hours of bedtime, it
significantly disrupts sleep onset latency. Before providing advice or interventions, the

, nurse must assess when during the day the client is exercising.
Question 5
The nurse is preparing discharge teaching for a client recovering from Guillain-
Barré syndrome (GBS) and their spouse. Which actions should the nurse include in
the plan of care? (Select all that apply)
• A. Review safe patient-transfer strategies.
• B. Initiate a rigorous, high-impact daily exercise routine.
• C. Develop a comprehensive nutritional plan.
• D. Help identify local community support resources.
• E. Provide complex cooking instructions for meal preparation.
Correct Answer: A, C, D
Expert Rationale: Guillain-Barré syndrome causes ascending demyelination resulting in
residual motor weakness, fatigue, and potential dysphagia.
• Safe transfers (A) are crucial to prevent falls due to residual lower-extremity
weakness.
• Nutritional planning (C) promotes tissue recovery and addresses swallowing
difficulties or caloric requirements.
• Community support (D) aids long-term psychosocial coping and rehabilitation
resources.
• Option B is dangerous because overexertion/fatigue can cause fatigue-induced
relapse or neuromuscular strain; exercise must be slow and progressive.
Question 6
The nurse implements a tertiary prevention program for type 2 diabetes mellitus
in a rural health clinic. Which outcome indicates that the program was effective?
• A. At-risk clients improved their average scores on risk-factor knowledge tests.
• B. Over 50% of targeted individuals were diagnosed early in the disease process.
• C. Clients who developed chronic disease complications promptly received
rehabilitation.
• D. Client attendance at diabetes self-management education sessions reached
100%.
Correct Answer: C. Clients who developed chronic disease complications promptly

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