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HESI EXIT NGN RN Exit Exam 2026 ACTUAL TEST Comprehensive Questions And Verified Answers Detailed & Elaborated

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Complete HESI EXIT NGN RN Exit Exam 2026 with comprehensive questions and verified answers. Includes detailed rationales for every question, SATA, and prioritization strategies. Perfect for NCLEX preparation and nursing final exam success. Updated for 2026 NGN format.

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HESI EXIT NGN RN Exit Exam 2026 ACTUAL TEST
Comprehensive Questions And Verified Answers Detailed &
Elaborated
Question 1

A pt presses the call bell and requests pain medication for a severe headache. To assess the quality of the
pt. Pain, which approach should the nurse use?



A. Observe body language and movement

B. Identify effective pain relief measures

C. Provide a numeric pain scale

D. Ask the patient to describe the pain



Correct Answer: D. Ask the patient to describe the pain



Expert Rationale: Pain quality refers to the subjective characteristics of the pain experience, such as
sharp, dull, burning, or throbbing. Only the patient can accurately describe the quality of their pain.
Asking the patient to describe the pain provides direct assessment data about the nature of the pain
experience. Observing body language (A) assesses pain behaviors but not quality. Identifying effective
pain relief measures (B) evaluates interventions. Providing a numeric pain scale (C) assesses pain
intensity, not quality.



Question 2

The nurse is wearing personal protective equipment while caring for a pt. When exiting the room, which
PPE should be removed first?



A. Mask

B. Eyewear

C. Gown

D. Gloves

,Correct Answer: D. Gloves



Expert Rationale: Gloves are considered the most contaminated PPE and should be removed first to
prevent contamination of other PPE and the healthcare worker's hands. The correct sequence for PPE
removal is: gloves (most contaminated), eyewear/face shield, gown, and mask (last). This sequence
minimizes the risk of self-contamination during the doffing process. Removing gloves first prevents
transferring contaminants from the gloves to other PPE surfaces.



Question 3

An older pt is brought to the ED with a sudden onset of confusion that occurred after experiencing a fall
at home. The daughter, who has power of attorney, has brought the client's prescriptions. Which
information should the nurse provide first when reporting to the healthcare provider using SBAR
communication?



A. Currently prescribed medications

B. Client's healthcare power of attorney

C. Increasing confusion of the patient

D. Fall at home as reason for admission



Correct Answer: C. Increasing confusion of the patient



Expert Rationale: In SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) communication, the
Situation is the most critical information that needs to be communicated immediately. The patient's
increasing confusion represents an acute change in condition that requires urgent attention. While
medications (A), power of attorney (B), and the fall history (D) are relevant background information, the
acute neurological change (confusion) is the priority concern that must be reported first to ensure timely
intervention.



Question 4

A pt tells the nurse about working out with a personal trainer and swimming three times a week in an
effort to lose weight and sleep better. The pt states that it still is taking hours to fall asleep at night. Which
action should the nurse implement?

,A. Advise the client that lifestyle changes often take several weeks to be effective

B. Encourage the client to exercise everyday to eliminate bedtime wakefulness

C. Ask the client for a description of the exercise schedule that is being followed

D. Determine the amount of weight the client has lost since increasing activity



Correct Answer: C. Ask the client for a description of the exercise schedule that is being followed



Expert Rationale: Exercise can interfere with sleep if performed too close to bedtime. The nurse needs to
assess the timing and intensity of the client's exercise routine before making recommendations. Asking for
a description of the exercise schedule (C) allows the nurse to determine if exercise timing may be
contributing to sleep difficulties. While lifestyle changes do take time (A), this doesn't address the
potential cause. Exercising daily (B) could worsen the problem. Weight loss (D) is unrelated to the sleep
complaint.



Question 5

2 days prior to discharge from the rehab facility, the nurse is teaching a pt who is recovering from
Guillain-Barre syndrome about home. Which actions should the nurse include when providing discharge
teaching to the pt and spouse? (Select all that apply)



A. Review safe transfer strategies

B. Develop a nutritional plan

C. Help identify community support

D. Initiate a rigorous exercise routine

E. Provide cooking instructions



Correct Answers: A, B, C



Expert Rationale: Guillain-Barre syndrome is an autoimmune disorder that causes ascending paralysis,
and patients often have residual weakness requiring extensive rehabilitation. Reviewing safe transfer
strategies (A) is essential to prevent falls and injuries during mobility. Developing a nutritional plan (B)
supports recovery and prevents complications. Identifying community support (C) ensures continuity of
care and resources after discharge. A rigorous exercise routine (D) may be inappropriate and could cause

, fatigue or injury. Cooking instructions (E) may not be the priority when basic nutritional needs and
mobility are primary concerns.



Question 6

The nurse implements a tertiary prevention program for type 2 diabetes in a rural health clinic. Which
outcome indicates that the program was effective?



A. Only 30% of clients did not attend self-management education sessions

B. More than 50% of at-risk clients were diagnosed early in their disease process

C. Clients who developed disease complications promptly received rehabilitation

D. Average client scores improved on specific risk factor knowledge tests



Correct Answer: C. Clients who developed disease complications promptly received rehabilitation



Expert Rationale: Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing the impact of an already established disease by
minimizing complications and maximizing function through rehabilitation and management. Option C
directly measures the effectiveness of tertiary prevention by ensuring clients with complications receive
timely rehabilitation. Options A and D are related to secondary prevention (early diagnosis and
education). Option B describes primary prevention (preventing disease onset). The key to tertiary
prevention is managing existing disease and preventing further deterioration.



Question 7

The nurse has received funding to design a health promotion project for African American women who
are at risk for developing breast cancer. Which resource is most important in designing this program?



A. A listing of African-American women who live in the community

B. Morbidity data for breast cancer in women of all races

C. Participation of community leaders in planning the program

D. Technical assistance to produce a video on breast self-examination



Correct Answer: C. Participation of community leaders in planning the program

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