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NUR 3300 EXAM 1 – WPU NURSING PRACTICE II (2026/2027) NEWEST ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 300 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) | ALREADY GRADED A+

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PASS YOUR WPU NUR 3300 EXAM 1 WITH CONFIDENCE! This ALL-NEW 2026/2027 practice test features 200 ACTUAL QUESTIONS with verified answers and DETAILED RATIONALES covering Nursing Practice II content: Pharmacology Fundamentals (digoxin, warfarin, insulin, opioids), Cardiovascular Nursing (heart failure, MI, hypertension, arrhythmias), Respiratory Nursing (COPD, asthma, pneumonia, PE), Endocrine Nursing (diabetes, thyroid, adrenal disorders), Fluid/Electrolyte/Acid-Base Balance, Infection Control & Immunity, Wound Care & Tissue Integrity, IV Therapy & Blood Transfusion, Pain Management, and Ethics/Legal/Professional Practice. Perfect for WPU nursing students preparing for NUR 3300 Exam 1, nursing school comprehensive assessments, or NCLEX-RN. Each question includes in-depth explanations to build clinical reasoning and critical thinking skills. Stop stressing—get exam-ready with this A+ GRADED resource designed by experienced nursing educators!

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NUR 3300 EXAM 1 – WPU NURSING PRACTICE II (2026/2027)
NEWEST ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 300 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |
ALREADY GRADED A+


EXAM CONTENT DOMAINS
Domain 01: Pharmacology Fundamentals
Domain 02: Cardiovascular Nursing
Domain 03: Respiratory Nursing
Domain 04: Endocrine Nursing
Domain 05: Fluid, Electrolyte, & Acid-Base Balance
Domain 06: Infection Control & Immunity
Domain 07: Wound Care & Tissue Integrity
Domain 08: IV Therapy & Blood Transfusion
Domain 09: Pain Management
Domain 10: Ethics, Legal, & Professional Practice

SECTION 1: PHARMACOLOGY FUNDAMENTALS (Questions 1–30)
Q1. A patient is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. The nurse should monitor
for which early sign of digoxin toxicity?
A) Bradycardia
B) Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting
C) Tachycardia
D) Hypertension
Answer: B) Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting
Rationale: Early signs of digoxin toxicity include gastrointestinal symptoms such
as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Bradycardia and visual
disturbances (yellow-green halos) occur later. Tachycardia and hypertension are
not typical signs of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should also monitor serum
potassium levels, as hypokalemia increases the risk of toxicity.

Q2. A patient is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should teach the
patient to avoid which of the following foods?
A) Green leafy vegetables (spinach, kale)
B) Citrus fruits (oranges, grapefruit)
C) Dairy products
D) Red meat
Answer: A) Green leafy vegetables (spinach, kale)

1

,Rationale: Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist. Green leafy vegetables are high
in vitamin K, which can counteract the anticoagulant effect of warfarin,
increasing the risk of clot formation. Patients should maintain a consistent
intake of vitamin K rather than avoiding it entirely. Citrus fruits do not
significantly interact with warfarin, though grapefruit can affect other
medications.

Q3. A patient is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. Which adverse effect
is most concerning and should be reported immediately?
A) Dry cough
B) Angioedema (swelling of lips, tongue, or throat)
C) Dizziness
D) Fatigue
Answer: B) Angioedema
Rationale: Angioedema is a life-threatening adverse effect of ACE inhibitors
like lisinopril. It involves swelling of the lips, tongue, throat, and face,
which can compromise the airway. Dry cough is a common side effect but is not
life-threatening. Dizziness and fatigue are also common but do not require
immediate emergency intervention.

Q4. A patient is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. The nurse
should monitor which laboratory value most closely?
A) Serum sodium
B) Serum potassium
C) Serum calcium
D) Serum magnesium
Answer: B) Serum potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes significant potassium
loss through the kidneys. Hypokalemia can lead to cardiac arrhythmias,
especially in patients taking digoxin. Serum sodium, calcium, and magnesium
may also be affected, but potassium is the most critical to monitor.

Q5. A patient is prescribed morphine sulfate for severe pain. The nurse should
have which medication readily available as an antidote?
A) Naloxone (Narcan)
B) Flumazenil (Romazicon)
C) Atropine
D) Epinephrine

2

,Answer: A) Naloxone (Narcan)
Rationale: Naloxone is the specific antidote for opioid toxicity. It reverses
respiratory depression and sedation caused by morphine. Flumazenil is the
antidote for benzodiazepines. Atropine is used for bradycardia and
organophosphate poisoning. Epinephrine is used for anaphylaxis.

Q6. A patient is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. The nurse should
monitor the patient for which potentially life-threatening adverse effect?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Lactic acidosis
C) Weight gain
D) Hyperglycemia
Answer: B) Lactic acidosis
Rationale: Lactic acidosis is a rare but serious adverse effect of metformin,
especially in patients with renal impairment, liver disease, or conditions that
predispose to hypoxia. Symptoms include malaise, myalgia, respiratory distress,
and abdominal pain. Hypoglycemia is uncommon with metformin alone. Weight
gain
is not a typical effect.

Q7. A patient is prescribed heparin subcutaneously for DVT prophylaxis. Which
laboratory value should the nurse monitor?
A) aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time)
B) INR (International Normalized Ratio)
C) Platelet count
D) Hemoglobin and hematocrit
Answer: C) Platelet count
Rationale: Heparin can cause heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a
life-threatening immune-mediated reaction that causes a drop in platelet
count and paradoxical thrombosis. aPTT is monitored for unfractionated
heparin IV therapy, not typically for subcutaneous prophylaxis. INR is
monitored for warfarin therapy.

Q8. A patient is prescribed albuterol (Proventil) for asthma. The nurse should
teach the patient about which common side effect?
A) Bradycardia
B) Tachycardia and nervousness
C) Sedation

3

, D) Hypotension
Answer: B) Tachycardia and nervousness
Rationale: Albuterol is a beta-2 agonist that can also stimulate beta-1
receptors, causing tachycardia, palpitations, and nervousness. It does not
cause bradycardia or sedation. Hypotension is not a typical side effect.

Q9. A patient is prescribed a potassium-sparing diuretic (spironolactone). Which
laboratory value should the nurse monitor most closely?
A) Serum sodium
B) Serum potassium
C) Serum calcium
D) Serum magnesium
Answer: B) Serum potassium
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause
hyperkalemia. The nurse should monitor serum potassium levels closely,
especially in patients with renal impairment or those taking ACE inhibitors,
ARBs, or potassium supplements.

Q10. A patient is prescribed amiodarone for cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse
should monitor for which adverse effect?
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Pulmonary toxicity (interstitial pneumonitis)
C) Hepatotoxicity
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Rationale: Amiodarone has multiple serious adverse effects, including
pulmonary toxicity (interstitial pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis),
thyroid dysfunction (hyper- or hypothyroidism), hepatotoxicity, corneal
microdeposits, and blue-gray skin discoloration. Regular monitoring of
pulmonary function, thyroid function, and liver enzymes is required.

Q11. A patient is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should hold the medication and
notify the healthcare provider if the apical pulse is below:
A) 60 beats per minute
B) 70 beats per minute
C) 80 beats per minute
D) 90 beats per minute
Answer: A) 60 beats per minute

4

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