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HESI Pharmacology EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS LATEST UPDATE THIS YEAR – JUST RELEASED
HESI Pharmacology Exam
Exam Coverage Overview (10 Key Areas)
1. Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics – Absorption, distribution, metabolism,
excretion; drug-receptor interactions; therapeutic index; half-life calculations .
2. Medication Administration & Safety – The "Rights" of Medication Administration; high-
alert medications; error prevention; safe injection techniques .
3. Cardiovascular Medications – Antihypertensives (ACE inhibitors, ARBs, CCBs, beta-
blockers); antidysrhythmics (amiodarone, digoxin); anticoagulants (warfarin, heparin,
enoxaparin); antiplatelets; statins; nitroglycerin .
4. Endocrine Medications – Insulin (rapid-acting, short-acting, intermediate, long-acting);
oral antidiabetics (metformin); thyroid hormones; corticosteroids .
5. Antimicrobials – Antibiotics (penicillins, cephalosporins, macrolides, fluoroquinolones,
tetracyclines, aminoglycosides); antifungals (amphotericin B); antivirals .
6. Neurological & Psychiatric Medications – Anticonvulsants; antipsychotics (haloperidol);
antidepressants (SSRIs, MAOIs); antiparkinson agents .
7. Pain Management – Opioids (morphine, fentanyl); NSAIDs; PCA pumps; opioid reversal
(naloxone) .
8. Respiratory & GI Medications – Bronchodilators (albuterol); glucocorticoids; antiemetics
(metoclopramide); antacids; laxatives .
9. Oncology & Immunomodulators – Chemotherapeutic agents; immunosuppressants;
colony-stimulating factors (epoetin alfa) .
10. Medication Calculations & IV Therapy – Dosage calculations; IV flow rates; infusion time
calculations; safe medication preparation .
1. A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which assessment finding indicates a
therapeutic response to the medication?
A) Increased shortness of breath
B) Decreased peripheral edema
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C) Heart rate of 52 bpm
D) Increased jugular venous distention
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A therapeutic response to digoxin in heart failure is indicated by decreased shortness
of breath, decreased peripheral edema, and improved cardiac output . A heart rate of 52 bpm is
bradycardic and may indicate digoxin toxicity. Increased jugular venous distention suggests
worsening heart failure.
2. The nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. What is the maximum rate of IV push
administration to prevent ototoxicity?
A) 10 mg/min
B) 20 mg/min
C) 30 mg/min
D) 40 mg/min
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide IV push should be administered at a maximum rate of 20 mg/min to
prevent ototoxicity (hearing loss) . Rapid administration can cause irreversible hearing damage.
3. A client is prescribed warfarin. Which INR value indicates that the medication is within
therapeutic range?
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A) 1.0
B) 1.5
C) 2.5
D) 4.0
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The therapeutic INR target for warfarin is typically 2 to 3 . An INR of 2.5 indicates the
medication is within the therapeutic range. An INR of 1.0 or 1.5 is below therapeutic range; an
INR of 4.0 indicates increased bleeding risk and requires provider notification.
4. A client is receiving heparin IV. The aPTT result is 110 seconds (normal range 25-35
seconds). What is the priority nursing action?
A) Continue the infusion as ordered
B) Stop the infusion and prepare protamine sulfate
C) Increase the infusion rate
D) Notify the provider and continue monitoring
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A therapeutic aPTT for heparin is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control (approximately
60-80 seconds) . An aPTT of 110 seconds indicates high bleeding risk requiring infusion stop and
preparation of protamine sulfate (the antidote for heparin).
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5. A client is prescribed metoprolol. What is the most important contraindication to be aware
of?
A) Hypertension
B) Asthma or COPD
C) Atrial fibrillation
D) Diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that requires caution in clients with asthma or COPD
due to the risk of bronchospasm . Although metoprolol is cardioselective, it can still cause
bronchoconstriction in susceptible individuals.
6. A client is prescribed amiodarone. Which adverse effect requires immediate evaluation?
A) Photosensitivity
B) Blue-gray skin discoloration
C) New cough and dyspnea
D) Corneal microdeposits
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Amiodarone can cause pulmonary toxicity, which presents with new cough and
dyspnea requiring immediate evaluation . Photosensitivity, blue-gray skin discoloration, and
corneal microdeposits are also adverse effects but are less immediately life-threatening.
HESI Pharmacology EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS LATEST UPDATE THIS YEAR – JUST RELEASED
HESI Pharmacology Exam
Exam Coverage Overview (10 Key Areas)
1. Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics – Absorption, distribution, metabolism,
excretion; drug-receptor interactions; therapeutic index; half-life calculations .
2. Medication Administration & Safety – The "Rights" of Medication Administration; high-
alert medications; error prevention; safe injection techniques .
3. Cardiovascular Medications – Antihypertensives (ACE inhibitors, ARBs, CCBs, beta-
blockers); antidysrhythmics (amiodarone, digoxin); anticoagulants (warfarin, heparin,
enoxaparin); antiplatelets; statins; nitroglycerin .
4. Endocrine Medications – Insulin (rapid-acting, short-acting, intermediate, long-acting);
oral antidiabetics (metformin); thyroid hormones; corticosteroids .
5. Antimicrobials – Antibiotics (penicillins, cephalosporins, macrolides, fluoroquinolones,
tetracyclines, aminoglycosides); antifungals (amphotericin B); antivirals .
6. Neurological & Psychiatric Medications – Anticonvulsants; antipsychotics (haloperidol);
antidepressants (SSRIs, MAOIs); antiparkinson agents .
7. Pain Management – Opioids (morphine, fentanyl); NSAIDs; PCA pumps; opioid reversal
(naloxone) .
8. Respiratory & GI Medications – Bronchodilators (albuterol); glucocorticoids; antiemetics
(metoclopramide); antacids; laxatives .
9. Oncology & Immunomodulators – Chemotherapeutic agents; immunosuppressants;
colony-stimulating factors (epoetin alfa) .
10. Medication Calculations & IV Therapy – Dosage calculations; IV flow rates; infusion time
calculations; safe medication preparation .
1. A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which assessment finding indicates a
therapeutic response to the medication?
A) Increased shortness of breath
B) Decreased peripheral edema
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C) Heart rate of 52 bpm
D) Increased jugular venous distention
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A therapeutic response to digoxin in heart failure is indicated by decreased shortness
of breath, decreased peripheral edema, and improved cardiac output . A heart rate of 52 bpm is
bradycardic and may indicate digoxin toxicity. Increased jugular venous distention suggests
worsening heart failure.
2. The nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. What is the maximum rate of IV push
administration to prevent ototoxicity?
A) 10 mg/min
B) 20 mg/min
C) 30 mg/min
D) 40 mg/min
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide IV push should be administered at a maximum rate of 20 mg/min to
prevent ototoxicity (hearing loss) . Rapid administration can cause irreversible hearing damage.
3. A client is prescribed warfarin. Which INR value indicates that the medication is within
therapeutic range?
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A) 1.0
B) 1.5
C) 2.5
D) 4.0
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The therapeutic INR target for warfarin is typically 2 to 3 . An INR of 2.5 indicates the
medication is within the therapeutic range. An INR of 1.0 or 1.5 is below therapeutic range; an
INR of 4.0 indicates increased bleeding risk and requires provider notification.
4. A client is receiving heparin IV. The aPTT result is 110 seconds (normal range 25-35
seconds). What is the priority nursing action?
A) Continue the infusion as ordered
B) Stop the infusion and prepare protamine sulfate
C) Increase the infusion rate
D) Notify the provider and continue monitoring
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A therapeutic aPTT for heparin is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control (approximately
60-80 seconds) . An aPTT of 110 seconds indicates high bleeding risk requiring infusion stop and
preparation of protamine sulfate (the antidote for heparin).
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5. A client is prescribed metoprolol. What is the most important contraindication to be aware
of?
A) Hypertension
B) Asthma or COPD
C) Atrial fibrillation
D) Diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that requires caution in clients with asthma or COPD
due to the risk of bronchospasm . Although metoprolol is cardioselective, it can still cause
bronchoconstriction in susceptible individuals.
6. A client is prescribed amiodarone. Which adverse effect requires immediate evaluation?
A) Photosensitivity
B) Blue-gray skin discoloration
C) New cough and dyspnea
D) Corneal microdeposits
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Amiodarone can cause pulmonary toxicity, which presents with new cough and
dyspnea requiring immediate evaluation . Photosensitivity, blue-gray skin discoloration, and
corneal microdeposits are also adverse effects but are less immediately life-threatening.
