NURSING LICENSURE
NSG3600- PEDS (EXAM 3) PQ (PRE & POST QUIZ QUESTIONS
FOR UNITS 5-7 GI, GU, AND NEURO) QUESTIONS WITH 100%
CORRECT ANSWERS!! **2026/2027**
A+
Complete Blueprint Coverage
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED EXAM DOMAINS COVERED RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
Gastrointestinal Disorders
Genitourinary Disorders
Neurological Disorders
Assessment and Diagnostics
Interventions and Education
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
, GASTROINTESTINAL DISORDERS
Question 1
A 3-week-old infant is brought to the clinic with progressive nonbilious projectile vomiting after feedings and an
olive-shaped mass palpable in the right upper quadrant. The infant appears hungry immediately after vomiting and
has lost 8% of birth weight. Which nursing action takes priority while awaiting surgical consultation?
A. Initiate oral rehydration solution in small frequent amounts
B. Maintain NPO status and prepare for intravenous fluid resuscitation
C. Position the infant prone after each feeding attempt
D. Administer a trial of thickened formula and reassess in 24 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Projectile nonbilious vomiting with an olive mass indicates hypertrophic pyloric stenosis; the infant is dehydrated and will require
pyloromyotomy. NPO status and IV fluid/electrolyte correction are essential before surgery. Oral intake or thickened feeds would
delay necessary preoperative stabilization.
Question 2
A 9-month-old previously healthy infant suddenly draws the knees to the chest, cries inconsolably for several
minutes, then appears calm before the cycle repeats. Currant-jelly stool is noted on the diaper. The nurse
anticipates which diagnostic and therapeutic intervention as first-line management?
A. Immediate exploratory laparotomy without imaging
B. Air or hydrostatic enema under fluoroscopic guidance
C. Oral polyethylene glycol solution over 24 hours
D. Upper gastrointestinal series with small-bowel follow-through
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Intermittent severe pain, drawing up of legs, and currant-jelly stool are classic for ileocolic intussusception. Air or hydrostatic
enema is both diagnostic and therapeutic in stable patients without peritonitis. Surgery is reserved for failed reduction or signs of
perforation.
Question 3
A toddler with a two-day history of abdominal pain, fever, and anorexia is diagnosed with acute appendicitis. While
awaiting transfer to the operating suite, the child begins vomiting bilious material and the abdomen becomes rigid
with rebound tenderness. Which complication has most likely developed?
A. Localized periappendiceal abscess formation
B. Perforation with secondary peritonitis
C. Mechanical small-bowel obstruction from adhesions
D. Mesenteric lymphadenitis mimicking appendicitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Sudden progression to bilious vomiting and a rigid abdomen with rebound indicates perforation and generalized peritonitis.
Periappendiceal abscess is a later, more contained process. Adhesions and mesenteric lymphadenitis do not produce this acute
rigid-abdomen picture.
, Question 4
A 6-year-old with known celiac disease is admitted after a family vacation during which dietary restrictions were
not followed. The child presents with explosive diarrhea, abdominal distention, and a flat affect. Laboratory results
show hypoalbuminemia and iron-deficiency anemia. Which long-term complication is the nurse most concerned
about preventing through strict gluten elimination?
A. Short-bowel syndrome requiring parenteral nutrition
B. Lymphoma and other gastrointestinal malignancies in adulthood
C. Chronic cholecystitis secondary to fat malabsorption
D. Irreversible pancreatic enzyme deficiency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Persistent gluten exposure in celiac disease increases lifetime risk of enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma and other GI
malignancies. Short-bowel syndrome is not a feature of celiac disease. Cholecystitis and pancreatic enzyme loss are not
primary long-term sequelae of untreated celiac disease.
Question 5
Parents of a 4-month-old with gastroesophageal reflux report that the infant continues to spit up after every feeding
despite upright positioning and smaller, more frequent meals. Growth remains along the 40th percentile and the
infant is otherwise asymptomatic. Which statement by the nurse is most accurate?
A. Pharmacologic acid suppression is now indicated to prevent Barrett esophagus
B. This pattern is physiologic reflux and usually resolves by 12–18 months without medication
C. An upper GI series is required immediately to rule out malrotation
D. The infant should be switched to an elemental formula and thickened feeds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Effortless regurgitation in a thriving, asymptomatic infant is physiologic GER that peaks around 4 months and resolves by 12–18
months in the majority of cases. Acid suppression, imaging, and elemental formula are reserved for infants with poor weight
gain, respiratory symptoms, or alarm signs.
Question 6
A newborn fails to pass meconium within the first 48 hours of life and develops progressive abdominal distention.
Rectal examination reveals a tight anal sphincter and explosive release of stool and gas. The nurse recognizes
these findings as most consistent with which condition?
A. Meconium ileus secondary to cystic fibrosis
B. Hirschsprung disease with aganglionic distal bowel
C. Imperforate anus with fistula to the perineum
D. Hypothyroidism-induced delayed intestinal motility
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Failure to pass meconium, abdominal distention, and explosive stool on rectal exam are hallmark findings of Hirschsprung
disease caused by absence of ganglion cells in the distal bowel. Meconium ileus typically presents with thick, inspissated
meconium and is associated with cystic fibrosis; the rectal exam findings differ.
NSG3600- PEDS (EXAM 3) PQ (PRE & POST QUIZ QUESTIONS
FOR UNITS 5-7 GI, GU, AND NEURO) QUESTIONS WITH 100%
CORRECT ANSWERS!! **2026/2027**
A+
Complete Blueprint Coverage
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED EXAM DOMAINS COVERED RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
Gastrointestinal Disorders
Genitourinary Disorders
Neurological Disorders
Assessment and Diagnostics
Interventions and Education
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
, GASTROINTESTINAL DISORDERS
Question 1
A 3-week-old infant is brought to the clinic with progressive nonbilious projectile vomiting after feedings and an
olive-shaped mass palpable in the right upper quadrant. The infant appears hungry immediately after vomiting and
has lost 8% of birth weight. Which nursing action takes priority while awaiting surgical consultation?
A. Initiate oral rehydration solution in small frequent amounts
B. Maintain NPO status and prepare for intravenous fluid resuscitation
C. Position the infant prone after each feeding attempt
D. Administer a trial of thickened formula and reassess in 24 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Projectile nonbilious vomiting with an olive mass indicates hypertrophic pyloric stenosis; the infant is dehydrated and will require
pyloromyotomy. NPO status and IV fluid/electrolyte correction are essential before surgery. Oral intake or thickened feeds would
delay necessary preoperative stabilization.
Question 2
A 9-month-old previously healthy infant suddenly draws the knees to the chest, cries inconsolably for several
minutes, then appears calm before the cycle repeats. Currant-jelly stool is noted on the diaper. The nurse
anticipates which diagnostic and therapeutic intervention as first-line management?
A. Immediate exploratory laparotomy without imaging
B. Air or hydrostatic enema under fluoroscopic guidance
C. Oral polyethylene glycol solution over 24 hours
D. Upper gastrointestinal series with small-bowel follow-through
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Intermittent severe pain, drawing up of legs, and currant-jelly stool are classic for ileocolic intussusception. Air or hydrostatic
enema is both diagnostic and therapeutic in stable patients without peritonitis. Surgery is reserved for failed reduction or signs of
perforation.
Question 3
A toddler with a two-day history of abdominal pain, fever, and anorexia is diagnosed with acute appendicitis. While
awaiting transfer to the operating suite, the child begins vomiting bilious material and the abdomen becomes rigid
with rebound tenderness. Which complication has most likely developed?
A. Localized periappendiceal abscess formation
B. Perforation with secondary peritonitis
C. Mechanical small-bowel obstruction from adhesions
D. Mesenteric lymphadenitis mimicking appendicitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Sudden progression to bilious vomiting and a rigid abdomen with rebound indicates perforation and generalized peritonitis.
Periappendiceal abscess is a later, more contained process. Adhesions and mesenteric lymphadenitis do not produce this acute
rigid-abdomen picture.
, Question 4
A 6-year-old with known celiac disease is admitted after a family vacation during which dietary restrictions were
not followed. The child presents with explosive diarrhea, abdominal distention, and a flat affect. Laboratory results
show hypoalbuminemia and iron-deficiency anemia. Which long-term complication is the nurse most concerned
about preventing through strict gluten elimination?
A. Short-bowel syndrome requiring parenteral nutrition
B. Lymphoma and other gastrointestinal malignancies in adulthood
C. Chronic cholecystitis secondary to fat malabsorption
D. Irreversible pancreatic enzyme deficiency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Persistent gluten exposure in celiac disease increases lifetime risk of enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma and other GI
malignancies. Short-bowel syndrome is not a feature of celiac disease. Cholecystitis and pancreatic enzyme loss are not
primary long-term sequelae of untreated celiac disease.
Question 5
Parents of a 4-month-old with gastroesophageal reflux report that the infant continues to spit up after every feeding
despite upright positioning and smaller, more frequent meals. Growth remains along the 40th percentile and the
infant is otherwise asymptomatic. Which statement by the nurse is most accurate?
A. Pharmacologic acid suppression is now indicated to prevent Barrett esophagus
B. This pattern is physiologic reflux and usually resolves by 12–18 months without medication
C. An upper GI series is required immediately to rule out malrotation
D. The infant should be switched to an elemental formula and thickened feeds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Effortless regurgitation in a thriving, asymptomatic infant is physiologic GER that peaks around 4 months and resolves by 12–18
months in the majority of cases. Acid suppression, imaging, and elemental formula are reserved for infants with poor weight
gain, respiratory symptoms, or alarm signs.
Question 6
A newborn fails to pass meconium within the first 48 hours of life and develops progressive abdominal distention.
Rectal examination reveals a tight anal sphincter and explosive release of stool and gas. The nurse recognizes
these findings as most consistent with which condition?
A. Meconium ileus secondary to cystic fibrosis
B. Hirschsprung disease with aganglionic distal bowel
C. Imperforate anus with fistula to the perineum
D. Hypothyroidism-induced delayed intestinal motility
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Failure to pass meconium, abdominal distention, and explosive stool on rectal exam are hallmark findings of Hirschsprung
disease caused by absence of ganglion cells in the distal bowel. Meconium ileus typically presents with thick, inspissated
meconium and is associated with cystic fibrosis; the rectal exam findings differ.
