NURSING CERTIFICATION
AORN Periop 101 Final Exam Study Guide with 200+ Questions and
Revised Correct Answers (2026/2027) 100% Guarantee Pass
2026/2027
A+
Complete Blueprint Coverage
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED CORE DOMAINS COVERED RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
Patient Safety, Infection Prevention, and Skin Antisepsis
Surgical Environment, Asepsis, Sterilization, and Instrumentation
Anesthesia, Medications, and Perioperative Assessment
Positioning, Procedures, Hemostasis, and Specimen Handling
Professional Practice, Ethics, Documentation, and Team Communication
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
,AORN Periop 101 | 2026/2027 Page 2
Section 1: Patient Safety, Infection Prevention, and Skin Antisepsis
Q1
A circulating nurse is preparing the patient for an abdominal procedure and notices the surgical site marking is missing. The surgeon is
scrubbed and ready. Which immediate action aligns with the Universal Protocol?
A. Pause the start of the procedure and ensure the site is marked by the surgeon before incision
B. Proceed because the consent form lists the correct site
C. Allow the scrub person to mark the site through the drape
D. Document the missing mark and continue to avoid delay
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The Universal Protocol requires site marking before the procedure begins. Pausing to correct the omission prevents wrong-site surgery. Proceeding or
allowing non-surgeon marking violates AORN and Joint Commission standards.
Q2
During the surgical time-out the anesthesiologist is still completing induction. The circulating nurse begins reading the checklist. Which
practice is required?
A. All team members must stop and actively participate in the time-out before incision
B. The circulating nurse may complete the time-out alone to save time
C. The time-out can be completed after the incision is made
D. Only the surgeon needs to acknowledge the time-out
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
AORN guidelines require a full-team, active time-out with all members present and attentive before incision. Completing it alone or after incision defeats
the safety purpose.
Q3
A patient with a known latex allergy is scheduled for surgery. Which perioperative intervention is essential?
A. Schedule the case as the first of the day in a latex-safe environment with latex-free supplies
B. Use standard latex gloves and note the allergy on the chart only
C. Administer prophylactic antihistamines and proceed with usual supplies
D. Place the patient last on the schedule so the room is cleaned thoroughly
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Latex-allergic patients require a latex-safe environment and scheduling as the first case of the day to minimize residual latex exposure. Standard gloves
and late scheduling increase risk.
Q4
The circulating nurse is performing preoperative skin antisepsis with chlorhexidine gluconate. The patient has an open wound near the
incision site. Which action is correct?
A. Avoid allowing CHG to pool in the open wound and follow manufacturer instructions for use near open tissue
B. Apply extra CHG into the wound to maximize antisepsis
C. Switch to alcohol only because CHG is contraindicated with any break in skin
D. Skip skin prep entirely when an open wound is present
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
CHG should not be allowed to pool in open wounds; follow IFU. Extra application into the wound or skipping prep is inappropriate. Alcohol alone is not
the preferred agent for most surgical sites.
Q5
A patient is receiving a hair removal procedure at the surgical site. Which method and timing are consistent with current AORN
recommendations?
A. Clippers used as close to the time of surgery as possible, avoiding razors
B. Razors used the night before surgery in the patient's room
C. Chemical depilatories applied in the OR after induction
D. No hair removal is ever permitted under any circumstance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
AORN recommends clippers close to the time of surgery rather than razors, which increase SSI risk. Night-before razors and chemical depilatories in the
OR are not preferred practices.
AORN Periop 101 Final Exam Study Guide with 200+ Questions... 2
,AORN Periop 101 | 2026/2027 Page 3
Q6
During a procedure the circulating nurse observes a break in sterile technique when a scrubbed team member's glove touches a
nonsterile surface. What is the correct immediate response?
A. Notify the team, have the contaminated glove changed, and document the event as required
B. Ignore the break if the incision has not yet been made
C. Wait until the procedure ends to discuss the break
D. Ask the scrub person to wipe the glove with alcohol
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Breaks in sterile technique must be addressed immediately with glove change or regowning as appropriate. Ignoring or delaying correction increases
infection risk.
Q7
A patient is identified using two identifiers before transfer to the OR. The name band is missing. Which action is required?
A. Obtain a new name band and verify identity with the patient or family using two identifiers before proceeding
B. Proceed using the chart alone because the nurse knows the patient
C. Ask another nurse to identify the patient by face recognition
D. Delay only if the patient is under general anesthesia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Two-identifier verification and an intact name band are required. Proceeding without a band or using informal identification methods violates patient
safety standards.
Q8
The perioperative nurse is assessing fire risk. The procedure involves an open oxygen source near the surgical site and use of an
electrosurgical unit. Which classification and action are appropriate?
A. High fire risk; implement fire prevention measures including minimizing oxygen concentration and protecting the site
B. Low fire risk; no special precautions are needed
C. Moderate risk only if lasers are used
D. Fire risk assessment is optional for routine cases
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Open oxygen plus ESU creates high fire risk. AORN fire safety guidelines require risk assessment and active prevention strategies. Treating it as low risk
is incorrect.
Q9
A surgical patient has a history of MRSA colonization. Which infection prevention measure should the perioperative team implement?
A. Contact precautions as indicated by facility policy and consider decolonization protocols if ordered
B. Standard precautions only with no additional measures
C. Airborne isolation for the entire perioperative period
D. No special precautions because colonization is not infection
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
MRSA colonization often warrants contact precautions and may include decolonization. Standard precautions alone may be insufficient; airborne
isolation is not indicated for MRSA.
Q10
During skin prep the circulating nurse notes the CHG applicator is expired. The room is already set up and the patient is induced.
What is the correct action?
A. Replace the expired applicator with an in-date product before beginning prep
B. Use the expired product because efficacy is unlikely to be affected
C. Skip CHG and use only alcohol
D. Document the expiration and proceed to avoid delaying the case
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Expired antiseptic products must not be used. Replacement with an in-date product is required. Proceeding with expired product or skipping prep
increases SSI risk.
AORN Periop 101 Final Exam Study Guide with 200+ Questions... 3
, AORN Periop 101 | 2026/2027 Page 4
Q11
A patient is undergoing a procedure under monitored anesthesia care. The circulating nurse notices the patient's arm is hanging off
the armboard with the blood pressure cuff cycling repeatedly. Which concern is primary?
A. Risk of nerve injury and circulatory compromise; reposition the arm and ensure proper support
B. No concern because MAC does not require full positioning standards
C. Only the anesthesiologist is responsible for arm position
D. The cuff cycling is beneficial for venous return
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Improper arm positioning can cause nerve and circulatory injury regardless of anesthesia type. The circulating nurse shares responsibility for safe
positioning.
Q12
The scrub person reports that the sterile field was set up more than one hour before the patient entered the room and has been left
unattended. What is the recommended practice?
A. Consider the field contaminated and rebuild it according to facility policy and AORN guidance on unattended sterile fields
B. Use the field if no obvious contamination is visible
C. Cover the field and use it after a visual inspection only
D. The one-hour rule does not apply if the room doors remained closed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
AORN recommends that sterile fields not be left unattended; prolonged open fields increase contamination risk. Rebuilding is the safer practice when
policy requires it.
Q13
A circulating nurse is verifying the consent form. The procedure listed is 'left inguinal hernia repair' but the surgeon's note says 'right'.
The patient is already in the OR. What must occur?
A. Stop and resolve the discrepancy with the surgeon and patient (or representative) before proceeding
B. Proceed with the side the surgeon states verbally
C. Proceed with the side on the consent form
D. Have the circulating nurse correct the consent unilaterally
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Consent and planned procedure must match. Discrepancies require resolution before incision under the Universal Protocol. Unilateral correction or
proceeding is unsafe.
Q14
During a laparoscopic procedure the insufflation pressure is noted to be higher than ordered and the patient's peak airway pressures
are rising. Which team action is appropriate?
A. Communicate the finding to the surgeon and anesthesia provider and adjust pressure per orders and patient response
B. Ignore the pressure because laparoscopy always elevates airway pressures
C. Increase the Trendelenburg position to compensate
D. Turn off insufflation permanently for the remainder of the case
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Elevated insufflation pressure can compromise ventilation. Immediate communication and adjustment protect the patient. Ignoring or extreme position
changes without communication are unsafe.
Q15
A patient with diabetes is scheduled for surgery. Preoperative blood glucose is 286 mg/dL. Which perioperative nursing action is most
appropriate?
A. Notify the anesthesia provider and surgeon; follow facility protocol for perioperative glycemic management
B. Proceed without notification because the case is already delayed
C. Administer insulin independently without an order
D. Cancel the case unilaterally without physician involvement
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Significant hyperglycemia requires notification and protocol-driven management. Independent insulin administration without an order and unilateral
cancellation are outside nursing scope without collaboration.
AORN Periop 101 Final Exam Study Guide with 200+ Questions... 4
AORN Periop 101 Final Exam Study Guide with 200+ Questions and
Revised Correct Answers (2026/2027) 100% Guarantee Pass
2026/2027
A+
Complete Blueprint Coverage
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED CORE DOMAINS COVERED RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
Patient Safety, Infection Prevention, and Skin Antisepsis
Surgical Environment, Asepsis, Sterilization, and Instrumentation
Anesthesia, Medications, and Perioperative Assessment
Positioning, Procedures, Hemostasis, and Specimen Handling
Professional Practice, Ethics, Documentation, and Team Communication
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
,AORN Periop 101 | 2026/2027 Page 2
Section 1: Patient Safety, Infection Prevention, and Skin Antisepsis
Q1
A circulating nurse is preparing the patient for an abdominal procedure and notices the surgical site marking is missing. The surgeon is
scrubbed and ready. Which immediate action aligns with the Universal Protocol?
A. Pause the start of the procedure and ensure the site is marked by the surgeon before incision
B. Proceed because the consent form lists the correct site
C. Allow the scrub person to mark the site through the drape
D. Document the missing mark and continue to avoid delay
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The Universal Protocol requires site marking before the procedure begins. Pausing to correct the omission prevents wrong-site surgery. Proceeding or
allowing non-surgeon marking violates AORN and Joint Commission standards.
Q2
During the surgical time-out the anesthesiologist is still completing induction. The circulating nurse begins reading the checklist. Which
practice is required?
A. All team members must stop and actively participate in the time-out before incision
B. The circulating nurse may complete the time-out alone to save time
C. The time-out can be completed after the incision is made
D. Only the surgeon needs to acknowledge the time-out
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
AORN guidelines require a full-team, active time-out with all members present and attentive before incision. Completing it alone or after incision defeats
the safety purpose.
Q3
A patient with a known latex allergy is scheduled for surgery. Which perioperative intervention is essential?
A. Schedule the case as the first of the day in a latex-safe environment with latex-free supplies
B. Use standard latex gloves and note the allergy on the chart only
C. Administer prophylactic antihistamines and proceed with usual supplies
D. Place the patient last on the schedule so the room is cleaned thoroughly
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Latex-allergic patients require a latex-safe environment and scheduling as the first case of the day to minimize residual latex exposure. Standard gloves
and late scheduling increase risk.
Q4
The circulating nurse is performing preoperative skin antisepsis with chlorhexidine gluconate. The patient has an open wound near the
incision site. Which action is correct?
A. Avoid allowing CHG to pool in the open wound and follow manufacturer instructions for use near open tissue
B. Apply extra CHG into the wound to maximize antisepsis
C. Switch to alcohol only because CHG is contraindicated with any break in skin
D. Skip skin prep entirely when an open wound is present
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
CHG should not be allowed to pool in open wounds; follow IFU. Extra application into the wound or skipping prep is inappropriate. Alcohol alone is not
the preferred agent for most surgical sites.
Q5
A patient is receiving a hair removal procedure at the surgical site. Which method and timing are consistent with current AORN
recommendations?
A. Clippers used as close to the time of surgery as possible, avoiding razors
B. Razors used the night before surgery in the patient's room
C. Chemical depilatories applied in the OR after induction
D. No hair removal is ever permitted under any circumstance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
AORN recommends clippers close to the time of surgery rather than razors, which increase SSI risk. Night-before razors and chemical depilatories in the
OR are not preferred practices.
AORN Periop 101 Final Exam Study Guide with 200+ Questions... 2
,AORN Periop 101 | 2026/2027 Page 3
Q6
During a procedure the circulating nurse observes a break in sterile technique when a scrubbed team member's glove touches a
nonsterile surface. What is the correct immediate response?
A. Notify the team, have the contaminated glove changed, and document the event as required
B. Ignore the break if the incision has not yet been made
C. Wait until the procedure ends to discuss the break
D. Ask the scrub person to wipe the glove with alcohol
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Breaks in sterile technique must be addressed immediately with glove change or regowning as appropriate. Ignoring or delaying correction increases
infection risk.
Q7
A patient is identified using two identifiers before transfer to the OR. The name band is missing. Which action is required?
A. Obtain a new name band and verify identity with the patient or family using two identifiers before proceeding
B. Proceed using the chart alone because the nurse knows the patient
C. Ask another nurse to identify the patient by face recognition
D. Delay only if the patient is under general anesthesia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Two-identifier verification and an intact name band are required. Proceeding without a band or using informal identification methods violates patient
safety standards.
Q8
The perioperative nurse is assessing fire risk. The procedure involves an open oxygen source near the surgical site and use of an
electrosurgical unit. Which classification and action are appropriate?
A. High fire risk; implement fire prevention measures including minimizing oxygen concentration and protecting the site
B. Low fire risk; no special precautions are needed
C. Moderate risk only if lasers are used
D. Fire risk assessment is optional for routine cases
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Open oxygen plus ESU creates high fire risk. AORN fire safety guidelines require risk assessment and active prevention strategies. Treating it as low risk
is incorrect.
Q9
A surgical patient has a history of MRSA colonization. Which infection prevention measure should the perioperative team implement?
A. Contact precautions as indicated by facility policy and consider decolonization protocols if ordered
B. Standard precautions only with no additional measures
C. Airborne isolation for the entire perioperative period
D. No special precautions because colonization is not infection
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
MRSA colonization often warrants contact precautions and may include decolonization. Standard precautions alone may be insufficient; airborne
isolation is not indicated for MRSA.
Q10
During skin prep the circulating nurse notes the CHG applicator is expired. The room is already set up and the patient is induced.
What is the correct action?
A. Replace the expired applicator with an in-date product before beginning prep
B. Use the expired product because efficacy is unlikely to be affected
C. Skip CHG and use only alcohol
D. Document the expiration and proceed to avoid delaying the case
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Expired antiseptic products must not be used. Replacement with an in-date product is required. Proceeding with expired product or skipping prep
increases SSI risk.
AORN Periop 101 Final Exam Study Guide with 200+ Questions... 3
, AORN Periop 101 | 2026/2027 Page 4
Q11
A patient is undergoing a procedure under monitored anesthesia care. The circulating nurse notices the patient's arm is hanging off
the armboard with the blood pressure cuff cycling repeatedly. Which concern is primary?
A. Risk of nerve injury and circulatory compromise; reposition the arm and ensure proper support
B. No concern because MAC does not require full positioning standards
C. Only the anesthesiologist is responsible for arm position
D. The cuff cycling is beneficial for venous return
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Improper arm positioning can cause nerve and circulatory injury regardless of anesthesia type. The circulating nurse shares responsibility for safe
positioning.
Q12
The scrub person reports that the sterile field was set up more than one hour before the patient entered the room and has been left
unattended. What is the recommended practice?
A. Consider the field contaminated and rebuild it according to facility policy and AORN guidance on unattended sterile fields
B. Use the field if no obvious contamination is visible
C. Cover the field and use it after a visual inspection only
D. The one-hour rule does not apply if the room doors remained closed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
AORN recommends that sterile fields not be left unattended; prolonged open fields increase contamination risk. Rebuilding is the safer practice when
policy requires it.
Q13
A circulating nurse is verifying the consent form. The procedure listed is 'left inguinal hernia repair' but the surgeon's note says 'right'.
The patient is already in the OR. What must occur?
A. Stop and resolve the discrepancy with the surgeon and patient (or representative) before proceeding
B. Proceed with the side the surgeon states verbally
C. Proceed with the side on the consent form
D. Have the circulating nurse correct the consent unilaterally
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Consent and planned procedure must match. Discrepancies require resolution before incision under the Universal Protocol. Unilateral correction or
proceeding is unsafe.
Q14
During a laparoscopic procedure the insufflation pressure is noted to be higher than ordered and the patient's peak airway pressures
are rising. Which team action is appropriate?
A. Communicate the finding to the surgeon and anesthesia provider and adjust pressure per orders and patient response
B. Ignore the pressure because laparoscopy always elevates airway pressures
C. Increase the Trendelenburg position to compensate
D. Turn off insufflation permanently for the remainder of the case
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Elevated insufflation pressure can compromise ventilation. Immediate communication and adjustment protect the patient. Ignoring or extreme position
changes without communication are unsafe.
Q15
A patient with diabetes is scheduled for surgery. Preoperative blood glucose is 286 mg/dL. Which perioperative nursing action is most
appropriate?
A. Notify the anesthesia provider and surgeon; follow facility protocol for perioperative glycemic management
B. Proceed without notification because the case is already delayed
C. Administer insulin independently without an order
D. Cancel the case unilaterally without physician involvement
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Significant hyperglycemia requires notification and protocol-driven management. Independent insulin administration without an order and unilateral
cancellation are outside nursing scope without collaboration.
AORN Periop 101 Final Exam Study Guide with 200+ Questions... 4
