Jefferson State Community College / NUR 114
Nur 114 Mental Health/Inflammation/Immune NCLEX
Questions And Correct Verified Answers New Version 2026
26
A client taking haloperidol presents with muscle rigidity, high fever, altered mental status, and autonomic instability. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Reassure the client and monitor vital signs
20
B. Administer acetaminophen and fluids
C. Discontinue haloperidol and notify the healthcare provider
D. Place the client in restraints for safety
s
Correct Answer: C
am
This is neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) — a medical emergency. Discontinuing the antipsychotic is first.
A patient with known HIV misses multiple doses of ART
Ex
and now has a rising viral load. The nurse explains the most likely concern:
A. The virus may develop drug resistance, limiting future treatment options.
B. Missing doses has no consequence.
s
C. The virus will be cured spontaneously.
rt
D. The patient will immediately regain CD4 cells without treatment.
pe
Answer: A. The virus may develop drug resistance, limiting future treatment options.
Rationale: Intermittent ART adherence may lead to resistance mutations, necessitating regimen changes.
Ex
Which opportunistic infection found in the lecture was reclassified as fungal (not bacterial) and is commonly life- threatening in immunocompromised hosts?
A. Pneumocystis pneumonia (Pneumocystis jirovecii)
se
B. Streptococcal pneumonia
C. Tuberculosis only
ur
D. Influenza
Answer: A. Pneumocystis pneumonia (Pneumocystis jirovecii).
N
Rationale: Pneumocystis is a fungal organism and a classic opportunistic infection in AIDS, often severe.
Select all that apply Important counseling points for a patient starting PrEP include:
A. PrEP reduces risk but does not protect against other
STIs — continue barrier protection.
B. PrEP requires ongoing follow-up visits and periodic HIV testing.
C. Once started, no further monitoring is necessary.
, D. PrEP is for HIV-negative persons at increased risk.
Answer: A, B, D.
Rationale: PrEP reduces HIV risk but not other STIs; requires regular testing and follow-up; used by HIV-negative people at risk. C is false.
Which best describes the acute (primary) HIV infection stage?
A. It typically occurs about 2 weeks after exposure and may present with flu-like symptoms.
B. It is always asymptomatic and occurs 10 years later.
C. It is the same as AIDS.
26
D. It is when viral load is permanently zero.
Answer: A. It typically occurs about 2 weeks after exposure and may present with flu-like symptoms.
20
Rationale: Acute infection often causes generalized viral symptoms ~2 weeks post-exposure.
Which population/region was noted in the lecture to have the highest numbers of new HIV diagnoses?
s
A. Northern Europe
am
B. The U.S. South (higher proportion of new diagnoses)
C. Antarctica Ex
D. East Asia only
Answer: B. The U.S. South (higher proportion of new diagnoses).
Rationale: Lecture data emphasized
s
rt
pe
Ex
se
ur
N
Nur 114 Mental Health/Inflammation/Immune NCLEX
Questions And Correct Verified Answers New Version 2026
26
A client taking haloperidol presents with muscle rigidity, high fever, altered mental status, and autonomic instability. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Reassure the client and monitor vital signs
20
B. Administer acetaminophen and fluids
C. Discontinue haloperidol and notify the healthcare provider
D. Place the client in restraints for safety
s
Correct Answer: C
am
This is neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) — a medical emergency. Discontinuing the antipsychotic is first.
A patient with known HIV misses multiple doses of ART
Ex
and now has a rising viral load. The nurse explains the most likely concern:
A. The virus may develop drug resistance, limiting future treatment options.
B. Missing doses has no consequence.
s
C. The virus will be cured spontaneously.
rt
D. The patient will immediately regain CD4 cells without treatment.
pe
Answer: A. The virus may develop drug resistance, limiting future treatment options.
Rationale: Intermittent ART adherence may lead to resistance mutations, necessitating regimen changes.
Ex
Which opportunistic infection found in the lecture was reclassified as fungal (not bacterial) and is commonly life- threatening in immunocompromised hosts?
A. Pneumocystis pneumonia (Pneumocystis jirovecii)
se
B. Streptococcal pneumonia
C. Tuberculosis only
ur
D. Influenza
Answer: A. Pneumocystis pneumonia (Pneumocystis jirovecii).
N
Rationale: Pneumocystis is a fungal organism and a classic opportunistic infection in AIDS, often severe.
Select all that apply Important counseling points for a patient starting PrEP include:
A. PrEP reduces risk but does not protect against other
STIs — continue barrier protection.
B. PrEP requires ongoing follow-up visits and periodic HIV testing.
C. Once started, no further monitoring is necessary.
, D. PrEP is for HIV-negative persons at increased risk.
Answer: A, B, D.
Rationale: PrEP reduces HIV risk but not other STIs; requires regular testing and follow-up; used by HIV-negative people at risk. C is false.
Which best describes the acute (primary) HIV infection stage?
A. It typically occurs about 2 weeks after exposure and may present with flu-like symptoms.
B. It is always asymptomatic and occurs 10 years later.
C. It is the same as AIDS.
26
D. It is when viral load is permanently zero.
Answer: A. It typically occurs about 2 weeks after exposure and may present with flu-like symptoms.
20
Rationale: Acute infection often causes generalized viral symptoms ~2 weeks post-exposure.
Which population/region was noted in the lecture to have the highest numbers of new HIV diagnoses?
s
A. Northern Europe
am
B. The U.S. South (higher proportion of new diagnoses)
C. Antarctica Ex
D. East Asia only
Answer: B. The U.S. South (higher proportion of new diagnoses).
Rationale: Lecture data emphasized
s
rt
pe
Ex
se
ur
N
