preparing for Wilkes University NSG 530 Exam 2. It covers high-yield pathophysiologic
concepts across the cardiovascular, pulmonary, renal, gastrointestinal, endocrine,
hematologic, neurologic, and immunologic systems. Each question includes the correct
answer and a detailed rationale to reinforce clinical reasoning. This is a comprehensive
review tool, not the actual proprietary exam. Use it to test your knowledge and identify
areas requiring further focused study.
SECTION 1: TRANSCRIBED QUESTIONS FROM USER IMAGES
1. A patient with suspected left-sided heart failure presents with dyspnea and pulmonary
congestion. Upon auscultation, the nurse hears crackles in the lung bases. What is the
underlying pathophysiologic mechanism for these findings?
A) Right ventricular hypertrophy leading to increased venous pressure
B) Left ventricular failure causing decreased cardiac output and backup of blood into the
pulmonary circulation
C) Systemic vasodilation resulting in decreased afterload
D) Increased sympathetic stimulation leading to increased heart rate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure results in an inability of the left ventricle to efficiently
pump blood into the systemic circulation. This causes blood to back up into the left atrium
and eventually the pulmonary veins. The increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary
capillaries forces fluid into the interstitial and alveolar spaces, resulting in pulmonary
congestion, crackles, and dyspnea.
2. A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with fluid overload, edema, and
hypertension. The provider notes that the patient has decreased urine output. Which of the
following mechanisms is primarily responsible for the development of edema in this
patient?
A) Increased capillary oncotic pressure
B) Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
C) Decreased lymphatic drainage
D) Sodium and water retention due to decreased glomerular filtration rate
Correct Answer: D
,Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) decreases,
leading to an inability of the kidneys to excrete sodium and water. This sodium and water
retention increases the extracellular fluid volume, resulting in edema, fluid overload, and
hypertension.
3. A patient with a history of chronic alcoholism presents with significant ascites and
jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal hypoalbuminemia. What is the primary pathophysiologic
reason for this patient's ascites?
A) Increased portal vein hydrostatic pressure and decreased plasma oncotic pressure
B) Increased hepatic synthesis of proteins
C) Decreased aldosterone levels
D) Increased capillary permeability only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In chronic alcoholism and liver cirrhosis, hepatic fibrosis increases resistance to
blood flow through the portal vein, causing portal hypertension (increased hydrostatic
pressure). Concurrently, the failing liver cannot synthesize adequate albumin, leading to a
drop in plasma oncotic pressure. Both forces drive fluid out of the vascular space into the
peritoneal cavity, forming ascites.
4. A patient is admitted with severe pneumonia. The nurse notes the patient is becoming
increasingly confused, hypoxic, and hypotensive. The provider suspects septic shock. What
is the underlying mechanism for the hypotension observed in septic shock?
A) Decreased cardiac contractility
B) Systemic vasodilation due to massive release of inflammatory mediators (e.g., nitric
oxide, TNF-alpha)
C) Profound bradycardia
D) Hypovolemia due to acute kidney injury
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Septic shock is driven by a systemic inflammatory response to infection.
Inflammatory mediators, including tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a) and interleukins,
cause widespread endothelial dysfunction and vasodilation. The release of nitric oxide
leads to severe systemic vasodilation and a dramatic drop in systemic vascular resistance
(SVR), resulting in hypotension despite potentially normal or high cardiac output.
5. A patient is being mechanically ventilated and develops tension pneumothorax. The
nurse observes tracheal deviation to the contralateral side. Which of the following best
describes the underlying pathophysiology of this finding?
A) Collapse of the affected lung tissue
B) Positive pressure in the pleural space causing mediastinal shift
C) Bronchospasm due to irritation
D) Pleural effusion compressing the lung
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A tension pneumothorax occurs when air enters the pleural space but cannot
escape, causing intrapleural pressure to become positive on that side. This increasing
pressure pushes the entire mediastinum (including the heart, great vessels, and trachea)
,toward the opposite, unaffected side, resulting in tracheal deviation and severe
cardiovascular compromise (decreased venous return).
6. A patient with chronic emphysema is noted to have a "barrel chest" and pursed-lip
breathing. What is the primary pathophysiological change that leads to the "barrel chest"
appearance?
A) Increased residual volume due to airway collapse and air trapping
B) Decreased chest wall compliance due to kyphoscoliosis
C) Increased diaphragmatic contractility
D) Consolidation of lung tissue
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Emphysema is characterized by destruction of the alveolar walls and loss of
elastic recoil. This leads to premature airway collapse during expiration, which traps air in
the alveoli. Over time, this air trapping increases the residual volume and functional
residual capacity, hyperinflating the lungs and pushing the rib cage outward, creating the
"barrel chest" appearance.
7. A patient presents with right lower quadrant pain, fever, and a palpable mass. The
provider suspects an appendiceal abscess. Which of the following factors contributes to
the formation of an abscess?
A) Necrosis and walling off of the infected appendiceal tissue
B) Free perforation of the appendix into the peritoneal cavity
C) Increased gastric acid secretion
D) Systemic bacteremia seeding the appendix
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An abscess forms when an inflammatory process, such as acute appendicitis,
progresses to localized necrosis and perforation. However, instead of causing generalized
peritonitis, the omentum, bowel, and inflammatory adhesions wall off the infected and
necrotic appendix, creating a contained pocket of pus.
8. A patient with severe burns develops acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The
patient requires mechanical ventilation. Which of the following is the primary
pathophysiologic mechanism of ARDS?
A) Cardiogenic pulmonary edema due to heart failure
B) Increased permeability of the alveolar-capillary membrane causing non-cardiogenic
pulmonary edema
C) Chronic alveolar hyperinflation
D) Pulmonary embolism blocking blood flow
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: ARDS is characterized by an acute, diffuse inflammatory lung injury. Direct or
indirect insults (like severe burns, sepsis, or trauma) lead to the release of inflammatory
cytokines that damage the alveolar-capillary endothelium and epithelium. This injury
increases microvascular permeability, allowing protein-rich fluid to leak into the alveolar
spaces, resulting in non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, surfactant dysfunction, and severe
hypoxemia.
, 9. A 65-year-old male with a history of COPD presents to the clinic with worsening
shortness of breath. An arterial blood gas analysis reveals a pH of 7.28, PaCO2 of 65
mmHg, and HCO3- of 26 mEq/L. What is the acid-base disturbance?
A) Metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation
B) Metabolic alkalosis with partial respiratory compensation
C) Acute respiratory acidosis without metabolic compensation
D) Chronic respiratory acidosis with full metabolic compensation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The pH is low (acidemia). The PaCO2 is high (> 45 mmHg), indicating a
respiratory acidosis. The HCO3- is normal (22-28 mEq/L). In acute respiratory acidosis,
the kidneys do not have enough time (taking 24-48 hours) to retain bicarbonate for
metabolic compensation. Therefore, this represents an acute respiratory acidosis without
metabolic compensation.
10. Which of the following ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) mismatches is most likely to result in
a right-to-left shunt and severe hypoxemia that does NOT correct with 100% oxygen?
A) Normal V/Q
B) Low V/Q (physiological shunt)
C) High V/Q (dead space)
D) True anatomical shunt (zero V/Q)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a true anatomical shunt, alveolar units are perfused but completely
unventilated (V/Q = 0). Blood passes through these areas without being oxygenated.
Because 100% oxygen cannot reach the alveoli in these units, the unoxygenated blood
continues to mix with oxygenated blood, causing hypoxemia that is refractory to oxygen
therapy. Low V/Q areas (physiological shunt) can often be fixed by administering
supplemental oxygen.
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SECTION 2: COMPREHENSIVE SUPPLEMENTARY TEST BANK (CONTINUED)
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*** CARDIOVASCULAR PATHOPHYSIOLOGY ***
11. Which of the following is the primary etiologic factor for atherosclerotic plaque
formation?
A) Chronic hypotension
B) Endothelial injury and inflammation
C) Excess oxygen supply to the intima
D) High levels of high-density lipoproteins (HDL)
Correct Answer: B