NURS 5433 FNP II Practice Test Latest
Update 2026/2027 | Exam Prep | 100%
Accurate Answers
1. A 45-year-old patient with diabetes and hypertension is 2 days post-renal
transplant. The patient reports decreased urine output and swelling in the lower
extremities. Which laboratory finding is most concerning for acute kidney injury?
A) Creatinine increase of 0.2 mg/dL from baseline
B) Creatinine increase of 0.3 mg/dL from baseline
C) Anuria for 4 hours
D) BUN/Creatinine ratio of 20:1
Answer: B
Rationale: A creatinine increase of ≥0.3 mg/dL from baseline within 48 hours is one of the
KDIGO criteria for stage 1 Acute Kidney Injury.
2. A 28-year-old female presents with a 2-day history of nausea, vomiting, and
diarrhea after a family gathering. She is unable to keep fluids down and reports
lightheadedness when standing. Vital signs show HR 110, BP 98/62. Which is the
priority intervention?
A) Order a stool culture
B) Administer intravenous fluids
C) Prescribe an antiemetic
D) Obtain a complete blood count
Answer: B
Rationale: The patient has tachycardia and orthostatic hypotension, indicating significant
volume depletion. Fluid resuscitation is the priority.
3. A patient with chronic kidney disease has a urinalysis showing albuminuria
greater than 300 mg/gram creatinine. This finding is most indicative of:
A) Stage 1 CKD
B) Microvascular renal disease
,C) Acute tubular necrosis
D) Urinary tract infection
Answer: B
Rationale: Albuminuria greater than 300 mg/gram creatinine is indicative of
macroalbuminuria, a marker of glomerular damage.
4. A 72-year-old patient presents with gradual hearing loss over several years. The
patient reports difficulty hearing conversations, especially in crowded
environments. Otoscopic examination is normal. What is the most likely cause?
A) Cerumen impaction
B) Presbycusis
C) Otitis media
D) Tympanic membrane perforation
Answer: B
Rationale: Presbycusis is age-related sensorineural hearing loss characterized by gradual
bilateral hearing loss and a normal otoscopic examination.
5. According to the stages of healthcare team function and development, which
stage is characterized by team members focusing on their own professional roles
and perspectives with minimal personal interaction?
A) Storming
B) Forming
C) Norming
D) Performing
Answer: B
Rationale: The forming stage is characterized by team members focusing on their own
professional roles and perspectives with minimal personal interaction.
6. During a difficult conversation with a patient, the patient becomes silent and
withdraws. This is an example of:
A) Violence
B) Silence
C) Confrontation
D) Verbal dexterity
,Answer: B
Rationale: Silence in difficult conversations includes masking, avoiding, and withdrawing.
7. In the Thomas-Kilmann conflict mode, which approach involves withdrawing
from the situation to maintain neutrality?
A) Competing
B) Avoiding
C) Compromising
D) Collaborating
Answer: B
Rationale: The avoiding conflict mode involves withdrawing from the situation and
maintaining neutrality.
8. What is the primary goal of interprofessional education (IPE)?
A) Reduce healthcare costs
B) Promote interprofessional teamwork and enhance quality of patient care
C) Increase physician autonomy
D) Standardize medical education
Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of IPE is to promote interprofessional teamwork, enhance
quality of patient care, and improve health outcomes.
9. A nurse practitioner is working with a patient who has high levels of anxiety
during math tests because a former teacher shamed the student. The NP says,
"From what you told me, you really felt uncomfortable around your old teacher. It
sounds like your new teacher reminds you a lot of the old one, which could be
setting off your anxiety." This is an example of which therapeutic technique?
A) Confrontation
B) Additive empathy
C) Interpretation
D) Reflection
Answer: B
Rationale: Additive empathy involves adding a deeper layer of understanding to what the
client has expressed, connecting past experiences to current reactions.
, 10. A patient in the precontemplation stage of change is best described as:
A) Recognized the problem and asks what can be done to change
B) Aware of the problem but not moved to action
C) Does not believe they have a problem
D) Sustains change through consistent application
Answer: C
Rationale: In the precontemplation stage, the client does not believe they have a problem.
11. In the 5 levels of conflict, which represents the most severe level requiring
active resolution?
A) Differences
B) Misunderstandings
C) Disagreement
D) Polarization
Answer: D
Rationale: Polarization is the most severe level of conflict, characterized by intense
negative feelings and behaviors.
12. A nurse practitioner receives a verbal order for "15 mg" of a medication. The
NP reads back, "The order is for 15 mg of [medication], one-five mg. Is that
correct?" This is an example of:
A) Closed-loop communication
B) Read-back method
C) Repeat-back method
D) SBAR communication
Answer: B
Rationale: The read-back method involves reading back a verbal or phone order to
confirm it before processing.
13. A patient who has been in the maintenance stage of change relapses into
problematic behavior. The NP should:
A) Confront the patient about the failure
B) Attempt to return to contemplation without becoming stuck or demoralized
Update 2026/2027 | Exam Prep | 100%
Accurate Answers
1. A 45-year-old patient with diabetes and hypertension is 2 days post-renal
transplant. The patient reports decreased urine output and swelling in the lower
extremities. Which laboratory finding is most concerning for acute kidney injury?
A) Creatinine increase of 0.2 mg/dL from baseline
B) Creatinine increase of 0.3 mg/dL from baseline
C) Anuria for 4 hours
D) BUN/Creatinine ratio of 20:1
Answer: B
Rationale: A creatinine increase of ≥0.3 mg/dL from baseline within 48 hours is one of the
KDIGO criteria for stage 1 Acute Kidney Injury.
2. A 28-year-old female presents with a 2-day history of nausea, vomiting, and
diarrhea after a family gathering. She is unable to keep fluids down and reports
lightheadedness when standing. Vital signs show HR 110, BP 98/62. Which is the
priority intervention?
A) Order a stool culture
B) Administer intravenous fluids
C) Prescribe an antiemetic
D) Obtain a complete blood count
Answer: B
Rationale: The patient has tachycardia and orthostatic hypotension, indicating significant
volume depletion. Fluid resuscitation is the priority.
3. A patient with chronic kidney disease has a urinalysis showing albuminuria
greater than 300 mg/gram creatinine. This finding is most indicative of:
A) Stage 1 CKD
B) Microvascular renal disease
,C) Acute tubular necrosis
D) Urinary tract infection
Answer: B
Rationale: Albuminuria greater than 300 mg/gram creatinine is indicative of
macroalbuminuria, a marker of glomerular damage.
4. A 72-year-old patient presents with gradual hearing loss over several years. The
patient reports difficulty hearing conversations, especially in crowded
environments. Otoscopic examination is normal. What is the most likely cause?
A) Cerumen impaction
B) Presbycusis
C) Otitis media
D) Tympanic membrane perforation
Answer: B
Rationale: Presbycusis is age-related sensorineural hearing loss characterized by gradual
bilateral hearing loss and a normal otoscopic examination.
5. According to the stages of healthcare team function and development, which
stage is characterized by team members focusing on their own professional roles
and perspectives with minimal personal interaction?
A) Storming
B) Forming
C) Norming
D) Performing
Answer: B
Rationale: The forming stage is characterized by team members focusing on their own
professional roles and perspectives with minimal personal interaction.
6. During a difficult conversation with a patient, the patient becomes silent and
withdraws. This is an example of:
A) Violence
B) Silence
C) Confrontation
D) Verbal dexterity
,Answer: B
Rationale: Silence in difficult conversations includes masking, avoiding, and withdrawing.
7. In the Thomas-Kilmann conflict mode, which approach involves withdrawing
from the situation to maintain neutrality?
A) Competing
B) Avoiding
C) Compromising
D) Collaborating
Answer: B
Rationale: The avoiding conflict mode involves withdrawing from the situation and
maintaining neutrality.
8. What is the primary goal of interprofessional education (IPE)?
A) Reduce healthcare costs
B) Promote interprofessional teamwork and enhance quality of patient care
C) Increase physician autonomy
D) Standardize medical education
Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of IPE is to promote interprofessional teamwork, enhance
quality of patient care, and improve health outcomes.
9. A nurse practitioner is working with a patient who has high levels of anxiety
during math tests because a former teacher shamed the student. The NP says,
"From what you told me, you really felt uncomfortable around your old teacher. It
sounds like your new teacher reminds you a lot of the old one, which could be
setting off your anxiety." This is an example of which therapeutic technique?
A) Confrontation
B) Additive empathy
C) Interpretation
D) Reflection
Answer: B
Rationale: Additive empathy involves adding a deeper layer of understanding to what the
client has expressed, connecting past experiences to current reactions.
, 10. A patient in the precontemplation stage of change is best described as:
A) Recognized the problem and asks what can be done to change
B) Aware of the problem but not moved to action
C) Does not believe they have a problem
D) Sustains change through consistent application
Answer: C
Rationale: In the precontemplation stage, the client does not believe they have a problem.
11. In the 5 levels of conflict, which represents the most severe level requiring
active resolution?
A) Differences
B) Misunderstandings
C) Disagreement
D) Polarization
Answer: D
Rationale: Polarization is the most severe level of conflict, characterized by intense
negative feelings and behaviors.
12. A nurse practitioner receives a verbal order for "15 mg" of a medication. The
NP reads back, "The order is for 15 mg of [medication], one-five mg. Is that
correct?" This is an example of:
A) Closed-loop communication
B) Read-back method
C) Repeat-back method
D) SBAR communication
Answer: B
Rationale: The read-back method involves reading back a verbal or phone order to
confirm it before processing.
13. A patient who has been in the maintenance stage of change relapses into
problematic behavior. The NP should:
A) Confront the patient about the failure
B) Attempt to return to contemplation without becoming stuck or demoralized
