BSN Midterm Study Guide — Body Systems & Lab Science (2026
Update)
1. A nurse is caring for a patient with suspected heart failure. Which lab value is
most specific for diagnosing heart failure?
A. B-type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)
B. Troponin I
C. Creatine Kinase (CK-MB)
D. Myoglobin
Answer: A
Rationale: BNP is a hormone secreted by cardiomyocytes in the heart ventricles in
response to stretching caused by increased ventricular blood volume. It is highly specific
for heart failure.
2. Which clinical manifestation is most characteristic of right-sided heart failure?
A. Crackles in the lungs
B. Peripheral edema
C. Dyspnea on exertion
D. Frothy, pink-tinged sputum
Answer: B
Rationale: Right-sided heart failure leads to systemic venous congestion, resulting in
peripheral edema, JVD, and hepatomegaly. Left-sided failure causes pulmonary symptoms.
,3. A patient’s ABG results are: pH 7.32, PaCO2 50 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. How
should the nurse interpret these findings?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
Answer: C
Rationale: The pH is low (<7.35), indicating acidosis. The PaCO2 is high (>45), and the
HCO3 is normal, pointing to a respiratory cause.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause peaked T waves on an
EKG?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (high potassium) affects cardiac conduction and typically causes
tall, peaked T waves and widened QRS complexes.
5. A patient with Type 1 Diabetes presents with Kussmaul respirations. This
respiratory pattern is a compensatory mechanism for which condition?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Answer: B
Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid breaths that help the body ‘blow off’
excess CO2 to compensate for metabolic acidosis, such as DKA.
, 6. What is the primary pathophysiology of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?
A. Absolute insulin deficiency
B. Autoimmune destruction of beta cells
C. Insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency
D. Excessive glucagon production
Answer: C
Rationale: Type 2 DM is characterized by the body’s inability to use insulin effectively
(resistance) and eventually a failure of the pancreas to produce enough insulin.
7. A patient has a serum calcium level of 7.2 mg/dL. Which sign should the nurse
assess for?
A. Polyuria
B. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
C. Constipation
D. Positive Trousseau’s sign
Answer: D
Rationale: Hypocalcemia (normal 8.5-10.5 mg/dL) causes neuromuscular irritability,
leading to signs like Trousseau’s (carpal spasm with BP cuff) and Chvostek’s sign.
8. Which lab value is the best indicator of long-term glycemic control in a
diabetic patient?
A. Fasting blood glucose
B. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c)
C. Postprandial glucose
D. Urine ketones
Answer: B
Rationale: HbA1c measures the average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months by
calculating the percentage of hemoglobin with attached glucose.
Update)
1. A nurse is caring for a patient with suspected heart failure. Which lab value is
most specific for diagnosing heart failure?
A. B-type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)
B. Troponin I
C. Creatine Kinase (CK-MB)
D. Myoglobin
Answer: A
Rationale: BNP is a hormone secreted by cardiomyocytes in the heart ventricles in
response to stretching caused by increased ventricular blood volume. It is highly specific
for heart failure.
2. Which clinical manifestation is most characteristic of right-sided heart failure?
A. Crackles in the lungs
B. Peripheral edema
C. Dyspnea on exertion
D. Frothy, pink-tinged sputum
Answer: B
Rationale: Right-sided heart failure leads to systemic venous congestion, resulting in
peripheral edema, JVD, and hepatomegaly. Left-sided failure causes pulmonary symptoms.
,3. A patient’s ABG results are: pH 7.32, PaCO2 50 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. How
should the nurse interpret these findings?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
Answer: C
Rationale: The pH is low (<7.35), indicating acidosis. The PaCO2 is high (>45), and the
HCO3 is normal, pointing to a respiratory cause.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause peaked T waves on an
EKG?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (high potassium) affects cardiac conduction and typically causes
tall, peaked T waves and widened QRS complexes.
5. A patient with Type 1 Diabetes presents with Kussmaul respirations. This
respiratory pattern is a compensatory mechanism for which condition?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Answer: B
Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid breaths that help the body ‘blow off’
excess CO2 to compensate for metabolic acidosis, such as DKA.
, 6. What is the primary pathophysiology of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?
A. Absolute insulin deficiency
B. Autoimmune destruction of beta cells
C. Insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency
D. Excessive glucagon production
Answer: C
Rationale: Type 2 DM is characterized by the body’s inability to use insulin effectively
(resistance) and eventually a failure of the pancreas to produce enough insulin.
7. A patient has a serum calcium level of 7.2 mg/dL. Which sign should the nurse
assess for?
A. Polyuria
B. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
C. Constipation
D. Positive Trousseau’s sign
Answer: D
Rationale: Hypocalcemia (normal 8.5-10.5 mg/dL) causes neuromuscular irritability,
leading to signs like Trousseau’s (carpal spasm with BP cuff) and Chvostek’s sign.
8. Which lab value is the best indicator of long-term glycemic control in a
diabetic patient?
A. Fasting blood glucose
B. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c)
C. Postprandial glucose
D. Urine ketones
Answer: B
Rationale: HbA1c measures the average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months by
calculating the percentage of hemoglobin with attached glucose.
