EOR EXAM WOMEN'S HEALTH STUDY GUIDE LATEST 2026 UPDATED
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED 100% SOLUTIONS (2026/2027) GRADE:
A+|STATUS: GUARANTEED PASS
A 56 year-old female patient comes to the office for evaluation. She complains of dyspareunia
and a thin vaginal
discharge. On physical examination atrophic vulvar changes are noted associated with vaginal
petechiae and a thin
clear discharge. What medication is recommended to treat this patient's symptoms?
A. Topical estrogen (Estrace) cream
B. Topical hydrocortisone (Gynecort)
C. Metronidazole (MetroGel) vaginal gel
D. Terconazole (Terazol) vaginal suppository - Answers -c) A. This patient has atrophic vaginitis
which is very common in postmenopausal patients. The vagina will appear
atrophied, will look pale, and thin and dry in appearance. Best to treat with topical or oral
estrogen preparations.
(u) B. Topical hydrocortisone would not be used in atrophic vaginitis.
(u) C. MetroGel is the drug of choice for bacterial vaginosis.
(u) D. Terazol is the treatment for non-albicans yeast infections.
You are performing a routine gynecological examination on a 49 year-old female. She states that
for the last six
months her periods have been getting heavier and lasting for seven days duration. She also tells
you that she has
been experiencing urinary frequency and constipation. Her abdominal exam is unremarkable.
On pelvic examination
you feel a slightly enlarged uterus and a left adnexal mass that moves with the uterine fundus.
Which of the following
1|Page
,is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Adenomyosis
B. Uterine fibroids
C. Ovarian neoplasm
D. Diverticular disease in the colon - Answers -(u) A. Adenomyosis occurs when endometrial
glands and stroma grow into the muscle of the uterus. Patients often
have severe secondary dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia; the uterus will be symmetrically
enlarged and often "boggy".
(c) B. Patients with uterine fibroids often have menorrhagia and/ or metrorrhagia. On
examination, the uterus will be
larger, and irregularly-shaped. If a mass is present and it moves with the uterus, it is suggestive
of a fibroid.
(u) C. It is important to consider an ovarian neoplasm in a patient with a palpable adnexal mass,
however, most
adnexal masses are asymptomatic and not associated with menstrual changes.
(u) D. Left-sided bowel disease is more common in older patients and would not be associated
with menstrual
changes.
At the time of ovulation in a normal menstrual cycle, there is a peak in the serum concentration
of which of the
following?
A. Luteinizing hormone
B. Prostaglandin
C. Progesterone
D. Prolactin - Answers -c) A. Luteinizing hormone is responsible for ovulation and, therefore,
peaks at that time.
2|Page
,(u) B. Prostaglandin is likely associated with the production of vasospasm, vascular necrosis, and
menstrual flow, not
ovulation.
(u) C. The majority of progesterone is secreted by the corpus luteum and, therefore, peaks after
ovulation has
occurred.
(u) D. Prolactin is an anterior pituitary hormone, and although important in reproduction and
pregnancy, it is not
present in high levels at the time of ovulation.
18 year-old G1P0 female presents for her 35 week prenatal visit with complaints of headache,
blurred vision and
right upper quadrant discomfort. Vital signs show BP of 170/100 mmHg and brisk patellar
reflexes. Urinalysis shows
3+ proteinuria. Fetal heart tones are 150. What is your next step in the care of this patient?
A. Admit to hospital and prepare for delivery
B. Admit to hospital with antepartum fetal surveillance and close monitoring of maternal
conditions
C. Order bed rest at home with daily fetal movement counts and twice weekly antepartum care
D. Order bed rest at home with administration of prophylactic magnesium sulfate - Answers -(c)
A. Severe preeclampsia mandates hospitalization. Delivery is indicated if gestational age is 34
weeks or
greater.
(u) B. Antepartum fetal surveillance and close monitoring in hospital is appropriate for pregnant
female with
unfavorable cervix and mild preeclampsia
3|Page
, . A 30 year-old female presents to the clinic for her 6 week post partum examination. She was
diagnosed with
gestational diabetes mellitus during her pregnancy and was successfully treated with diet alone.
Which of the
following patient education statements is most appropriate for this patient?
A. The risk of gestational diabetes occurring in future pregnancies is very low.
B. The risk of developing diabetes in 10-15 years is relatively low.
C. Lifestyle modification, diet & exercise will not prevent her from developing diabetes
D. Glucose testing every 1-3 years is recommended - Answers -(u) A. The risk of recurrence in
future pregnancies is 60%.
(u) B. She has a 50-60% risk of developing diabetes within 10-15 years.
(u) C. Lifestyle modification may delay or prevent developing diabetes.
(c) D. Those with normal glucose should be reassessed every 3 years; those with prediabetes
should be
assessed annually.
A 30 year-old female presents to the emergency room having passed out at home 30 minutes
prior to arrival. Her last
menstrual period was 6 weeks ago and pregnancy test was reported positive 5 days ago. She
started having vaginal
bleeding last night. Vital signs are BP 70/40 mmHg, P 140 bpm, R 22. She is pale and
diaphoretic. The next step in
the evaluation of this patient's condition should be which of the following?
A. Abdominal ultrasound
B. Culdocentesis
C. Laparotomy
4|Page
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED 100% SOLUTIONS (2026/2027) GRADE:
A+|STATUS: GUARANTEED PASS
A 56 year-old female patient comes to the office for evaluation. She complains of dyspareunia
and a thin vaginal
discharge. On physical examination atrophic vulvar changes are noted associated with vaginal
petechiae and a thin
clear discharge. What medication is recommended to treat this patient's symptoms?
A. Topical estrogen (Estrace) cream
B. Topical hydrocortisone (Gynecort)
C. Metronidazole (MetroGel) vaginal gel
D. Terconazole (Terazol) vaginal suppository - Answers -c) A. This patient has atrophic vaginitis
which is very common in postmenopausal patients. The vagina will appear
atrophied, will look pale, and thin and dry in appearance. Best to treat with topical or oral
estrogen preparations.
(u) B. Topical hydrocortisone would not be used in atrophic vaginitis.
(u) C. MetroGel is the drug of choice for bacterial vaginosis.
(u) D. Terazol is the treatment for non-albicans yeast infections.
You are performing a routine gynecological examination on a 49 year-old female. She states that
for the last six
months her periods have been getting heavier and lasting for seven days duration. She also tells
you that she has
been experiencing urinary frequency and constipation. Her abdominal exam is unremarkable.
On pelvic examination
you feel a slightly enlarged uterus and a left adnexal mass that moves with the uterine fundus.
Which of the following
1|Page
,is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Adenomyosis
B. Uterine fibroids
C. Ovarian neoplasm
D. Diverticular disease in the colon - Answers -(u) A. Adenomyosis occurs when endometrial
glands and stroma grow into the muscle of the uterus. Patients often
have severe secondary dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia; the uterus will be symmetrically
enlarged and often "boggy".
(c) B. Patients with uterine fibroids often have menorrhagia and/ or metrorrhagia. On
examination, the uterus will be
larger, and irregularly-shaped. If a mass is present and it moves with the uterus, it is suggestive
of a fibroid.
(u) C. It is important to consider an ovarian neoplasm in a patient with a palpable adnexal mass,
however, most
adnexal masses are asymptomatic and not associated with menstrual changes.
(u) D. Left-sided bowel disease is more common in older patients and would not be associated
with menstrual
changes.
At the time of ovulation in a normal menstrual cycle, there is a peak in the serum concentration
of which of the
following?
A. Luteinizing hormone
B. Prostaglandin
C. Progesterone
D. Prolactin - Answers -c) A. Luteinizing hormone is responsible for ovulation and, therefore,
peaks at that time.
2|Page
,(u) B. Prostaglandin is likely associated with the production of vasospasm, vascular necrosis, and
menstrual flow, not
ovulation.
(u) C. The majority of progesterone is secreted by the corpus luteum and, therefore, peaks after
ovulation has
occurred.
(u) D. Prolactin is an anterior pituitary hormone, and although important in reproduction and
pregnancy, it is not
present in high levels at the time of ovulation.
18 year-old G1P0 female presents for her 35 week prenatal visit with complaints of headache,
blurred vision and
right upper quadrant discomfort. Vital signs show BP of 170/100 mmHg and brisk patellar
reflexes. Urinalysis shows
3+ proteinuria. Fetal heart tones are 150. What is your next step in the care of this patient?
A. Admit to hospital and prepare for delivery
B. Admit to hospital with antepartum fetal surveillance and close monitoring of maternal
conditions
C. Order bed rest at home with daily fetal movement counts and twice weekly antepartum care
D. Order bed rest at home with administration of prophylactic magnesium sulfate - Answers -(c)
A. Severe preeclampsia mandates hospitalization. Delivery is indicated if gestational age is 34
weeks or
greater.
(u) B. Antepartum fetal surveillance and close monitoring in hospital is appropriate for pregnant
female with
unfavorable cervix and mild preeclampsia
3|Page
, . A 30 year-old female presents to the clinic for her 6 week post partum examination. She was
diagnosed with
gestational diabetes mellitus during her pregnancy and was successfully treated with diet alone.
Which of the
following patient education statements is most appropriate for this patient?
A. The risk of gestational diabetes occurring in future pregnancies is very low.
B. The risk of developing diabetes in 10-15 years is relatively low.
C. Lifestyle modification, diet & exercise will not prevent her from developing diabetes
D. Glucose testing every 1-3 years is recommended - Answers -(u) A. The risk of recurrence in
future pregnancies is 60%.
(u) B. She has a 50-60% risk of developing diabetes within 10-15 years.
(u) C. Lifestyle modification may delay or prevent developing diabetes.
(c) D. Those with normal glucose should be reassessed every 3 years; those with prediabetes
should be
assessed annually.
A 30 year-old female presents to the emergency room having passed out at home 30 minutes
prior to arrival. Her last
menstrual period was 6 weeks ago and pregnancy test was reported positive 5 days ago. She
started having vaginal
bleeding last night. Vital signs are BP 70/40 mmHg, P 140 bpm, R 22. She is pale and
diaphoretic. The next step in
the evaluation of this patient's condition should be which of the following?
A. Abdominal ultrasound
B. Culdocentesis
C. Laparotomy
4|Page
