ABRET CNIM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A+
1. What type of actions potentials contribute to the popliteal fossa: both
orthodromic and antidromic
2. What is the neurological deficit related to the compression of
the spinal cord: Myelopathy
3. When evaluating for special considerations/contraindication for
MEP mon-itoring, what is the most appropriate step to be taken
when identifying a pt with a previous medical history of SZs that
have been well controlled with medication: discuss the risk with surgeon and
anesthesiologist and proceed as they wish
4. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by: Prion proteins
5. Which of the following is an analog to N34: N18
6. Which of the following is NOT required to be part of an IONM record:
patients medication history
7. The most frequent source of a patient infection in the OR is derived
from: -
Patients own endogenous flora
8. Which nerve is at greatest risk when debulking a tumor larger than
3cm in diameter during CPA surgeries: Facial
9. If an evoked potential has a voltage of 10uV and the associated
noise has a voltage of 50uV, what is the signal-tonoiseratio after 100
,averaged respons-es?: 2:1
10. Which of the following is within the scope of practice for a CNIM:
obtain physiological data from central and peripheral nervous systems
11. What is the MINIMUM sampling rate for the Nyquist frequency: More
than double the fastest frequency of the waveform
12. What is the most appropriate filter bandpass setting for recording
the short latency median nerve SSEP: 30 to 3000 Hz
13. What modalities are ideal to run on a Chiari malformation
decompression-
: TCeMEPs
SSEPs
BAEPs
14. The Nyquist frequency is based on: sampling rate and frequency of
components
15. MRI conditional electrodes are made from which of the following?:
Nickel titanium
,16. What is the segmental motor innervation of the peroneus longus: L4,L5
and S1
17. Subdermal needles placed in the epidural space should be placed by
the: -
surgeon
18. This cranial nerve's function is to transfer visual information form
the retina to the brain: optic
19. Impedance is the opposition to: alternating current flow
20. Which of the following is a positively charged electrode: anode
21. D waves are recorded from which of the following electrodes: epidural
electrodes over the spinal cord
22. Motor nerve: Cranial nerve 3
23. What neurotransmitter is released at the neuromuscular junction?:
acetyl-choline
24. what cranial nerve is purely motor: Oculomotor
25. If 100 trials are required to achieve a signal-to-noise ratio of 2:1,
how many trials must be theorectically averaged to increase the
signal-to-noise ratio to 20:1?: 10,000
26. What is the most frequent mode of infection transmission, which
can be either direct or indirect: Contact
27. During CEA, what SSEP modality is recommended for monitoring
cerebral function: median
28. The use of IONM during scoliosis surgery may replace the: Stagnara
test
29. What is likely to result from a positional compression of the brachial
plexus-
: thoracic outlet syndrome
, 30. the flexion of the 4th and 5th digits of the hand would represent
stimulation of the following nerve: ulnar nerve
31. Saddle area sensory loss suggest a lesion in which area: cauda equina
32. what modalities should you monito for CEA surgery: Ipsilateral EEG,
Contralateral SSEP
33. Ratio of amplifier output voltage to input voltage: Recording gain
34. Which of the following cranial nerves is most appropriate to
monitor during resection of a 4cm vestibular schwannoma: facial
35. items that contact mucous membranes or non-intact skin are
semi-critical and require what level of disinfection: high level
1. What type of actions potentials contribute to the popliteal fossa: both
orthodromic and antidromic
2. What is the neurological deficit related to the compression of
the spinal cord: Myelopathy
3. When evaluating for special considerations/contraindication for
MEP mon-itoring, what is the most appropriate step to be taken
when identifying a pt with a previous medical history of SZs that
have been well controlled with medication: discuss the risk with surgeon and
anesthesiologist and proceed as they wish
4. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by: Prion proteins
5. Which of the following is an analog to N34: N18
6. Which of the following is NOT required to be part of an IONM record:
patients medication history
7. The most frequent source of a patient infection in the OR is derived
from: -
Patients own endogenous flora
8. Which nerve is at greatest risk when debulking a tumor larger than
3cm in diameter during CPA surgeries: Facial
9. If an evoked potential has a voltage of 10uV and the associated
noise has a voltage of 50uV, what is the signal-tonoiseratio after 100
,averaged respons-es?: 2:1
10. Which of the following is within the scope of practice for a CNIM:
obtain physiological data from central and peripheral nervous systems
11. What is the MINIMUM sampling rate for the Nyquist frequency: More
than double the fastest frequency of the waveform
12. What is the most appropriate filter bandpass setting for recording
the short latency median nerve SSEP: 30 to 3000 Hz
13. What modalities are ideal to run on a Chiari malformation
decompression-
: TCeMEPs
SSEPs
BAEPs
14. The Nyquist frequency is based on: sampling rate and frequency of
components
15. MRI conditional electrodes are made from which of the following?:
Nickel titanium
,16. What is the segmental motor innervation of the peroneus longus: L4,L5
and S1
17. Subdermal needles placed in the epidural space should be placed by
the: -
surgeon
18. This cranial nerve's function is to transfer visual information form
the retina to the brain: optic
19. Impedance is the opposition to: alternating current flow
20. Which of the following is a positively charged electrode: anode
21. D waves are recorded from which of the following electrodes: epidural
electrodes over the spinal cord
22. Motor nerve: Cranial nerve 3
23. What neurotransmitter is released at the neuromuscular junction?:
acetyl-choline
24. what cranial nerve is purely motor: Oculomotor
25. If 100 trials are required to achieve a signal-to-noise ratio of 2:1,
how many trials must be theorectically averaged to increase the
signal-to-noise ratio to 20:1?: 10,000
26. What is the most frequent mode of infection transmission, which
can be either direct or indirect: Contact
27. During CEA, what SSEP modality is recommended for monitoring
cerebral function: median
28. The use of IONM during scoliosis surgery may replace the: Stagnara
test
29. What is likely to result from a positional compression of the brachial
plexus-
: thoracic outlet syndrome
, 30. the flexion of the 4th and 5th digits of the hand would represent
stimulation of the following nerve: ulnar nerve
31. Saddle area sensory loss suggest a lesion in which area: cauda equina
32. what modalities should you monito for CEA surgery: Ipsilateral EEG,
Contralateral SSEP
33. Ratio of amplifier output voltage to input voltage: Recording gain
34. Which of the following cranial nerves is most appropriate to
monitor during resection of a 4cm vestibular schwannoma: facial
35. items that contact mucous membranes or non-intact skin are
semi-critical and require what level of disinfection: high level
