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CHAMBERLAIN NR 667 CEA EXIT EXAM 2026
QUESTIONS LATEST VERSION QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS
CHAMBERLAIN NR 667 CEA EXIT EXAM
250 Comprehensive Practice Questions with Rationales
EXAM OVERVIEW
The NR 667 CEA (Comprehensive Evaluation Assessment) Exit Exam is Chamberlain
University's culminating assessment for Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) students, designed
to evaluate clinical judgment, critical thinking, and readiness for professional nursing
practice. This practice exam covers content aligned with NR667 coursework, including
advanced health assessment, cardiovascular and respiratory disorders, endocrine and
metabolic conditions, gastrointestinal and renal systems, neurologic and musculoskeletal
care, infectious disease management, ethics, and evidence-based practice.
SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS (Questions 1-40)
1. A 62-year-old male client presents to the clinic with substernal chest pressure that
occurs with exertion and is relieved by rest. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Unstable angina
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B. Stable angina
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Pericarditis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stable angina is characterized by substernal chest pressure or pain that occurs
predictably with exertion and is relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. Unstable angina (A) occurs
at rest or with minimal exertion and is not relieved by rest. Myocardial infarction (C) presents
with prolonged chest pain not relieved by rest. Pericarditis (D) presents with sharp pain that
worsens with inspiration and is relieved by leaning forward.
2. A 68-year-old female client is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. Which of the
following medications is most appropriate for rate control in this client?
A. Amiodarone
B. Metoprolol
C. Digoxin
D. Diltiazem
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker commonly used for rate control in atrial fibrillation.
Amiodarone (A) is used for rhythm control but has significant side effects. Digoxin (C) is
used for rate control but is less effective than beta-blockers for active patients. Diltiazem (D)
is also used for rate control but is a calcium channel blocker; beta-blockers are often first-
line.
3. A 55-year-old male client with a history of hypertension is diagnosed with stage 1
hypertension. According to JNC 8 guidelines, which of the following is the
recommended initial treatment for this client?
A. Thiazide diuretic
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: JNC 8 guidelines recommend initial treatment for hypertension with a thiazide
diuretic, ACE inhibitor, ARB, or calcium channel blocker for the general non-black
population. All of these are appropriate first-line agents.
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4. A 72-year-old client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following
laboratory values should the nurse monitor most closely?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum glucose
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the excretion of potassium, leading to
hypokalemia. The nurse must monitor serum potassium levels closely to prevent cardiac
arrhythmias.
5. A 58-year-old female client presents with shortness of breath, orthopnea, and
peripheral edema. A physical examination reveals jugular venous distention and
crackles in the lungs. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Left-sided heart failure
B. Right-sided heart failure
C. Biventricular heart failure
D. Pericarditis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Biventricular heart failure presents with signs of both left-sided failure (crackles,
dyspnea, orthopnea) and right-sided failure (peripheral edema, jugular venous distention).
Left-sided failure (A) presents primarily with pulmonary symptoms. Right-sided failure (B)
presents primarily with systemic congestion.
6. A 65-year-old client is prescribed warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the
following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of
this medication?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Platelet count
D. PT
Correct Answer: B
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Rationale: INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the laboratory test used to monitor
warfarin therapy. The therapeutic INR for atrial fibrillation is typically 2.0-3.0. aPTT (A) is
used to monitor heparin. Platelet count (C) is monitored for heparin-induced
thrombocytopenia.
7. A 60-year-old male client presents with chest pain that is worse when lying flat and is
relieved by leaning forward. The nurse notes a pericardial friction rub on auscultation.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Stable angina
B. Pericarditis
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Pulmonary embolism
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pericarditis is characterized by chest pain that worsens when lying flat and is
relieved by leaning forward. A pericardial friction rub is a classic finding. Stable angina (A)
is relieved by rest. Myocardial infarction (C) presents with prolonged chest pain. Pulmonary
embolism (D) presents with sudden dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain.
8. A 70-year-old client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following
findings indicates digoxin toxicity?
A. Tachycardia
B. Visual disturbances (yellow or green halos)
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Visual disturbances, including yellow or green halos around lights, are classic
signs of digoxin toxicity. Other signs include nausea, vomiting, bradycardia, and cardiac
arrhythmias. Tachycardia (A), hyperkalemia (C), and hypertension (D) are not typical signs
of digoxin toxicity.
9. A 45-year-old female client with a family history of hyperlipidemia is started on
atorvastatin. Which of the following should the nurse include in the client education?
A. Take the medication in the morning
B. Avoid grapefruit juice
CHAMBERLAIN NR 667 CEA EXIT EXAM 2026
QUESTIONS LATEST VERSION QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS
CHAMBERLAIN NR 667 CEA EXIT EXAM
250 Comprehensive Practice Questions with Rationales
EXAM OVERVIEW
The NR 667 CEA (Comprehensive Evaluation Assessment) Exit Exam is Chamberlain
University's culminating assessment for Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) students, designed
to evaluate clinical judgment, critical thinking, and readiness for professional nursing
practice. This practice exam covers content aligned with NR667 coursework, including
advanced health assessment, cardiovascular and respiratory disorders, endocrine and
metabolic conditions, gastrointestinal and renal systems, neurologic and musculoskeletal
care, infectious disease management, ethics, and evidence-based practice.
SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS (Questions 1-40)
1. A 62-year-old male client presents to the clinic with substernal chest pressure that
occurs with exertion and is relieved by rest. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Unstable angina
, Page 2 of 85
B. Stable angina
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Pericarditis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stable angina is characterized by substernal chest pressure or pain that occurs
predictably with exertion and is relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. Unstable angina (A) occurs
at rest or with minimal exertion and is not relieved by rest. Myocardial infarction (C) presents
with prolonged chest pain not relieved by rest. Pericarditis (D) presents with sharp pain that
worsens with inspiration and is relieved by leaning forward.
2. A 68-year-old female client is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. Which of the
following medications is most appropriate for rate control in this client?
A. Amiodarone
B. Metoprolol
C. Digoxin
D. Diltiazem
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker commonly used for rate control in atrial fibrillation.
Amiodarone (A) is used for rhythm control but has significant side effects. Digoxin (C) is
used for rate control but is less effective than beta-blockers for active patients. Diltiazem (D)
is also used for rate control but is a calcium channel blocker; beta-blockers are often first-
line.
3. A 55-year-old male client with a history of hypertension is diagnosed with stage 1
hypertension. According to JNC 8 guidelines, which of the following is the
recommended initial treatment for this client?
A. Thiazide diuretic
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: JNC 8 guidelines recommend initial treatment for hypertension with a thiazide
diuretic, ACE inhibitor, ARB, or calcium channel blocker for the general non-black
population. All of these are appropriate first-line agents.
, Page 3 of 85
4. A 72-year-old client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following
laboratory values should the nurse monitor most closely?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum glucose
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the excretion of potassium, leading to
hypokalemia. The nurse must monitor serum potassium levels closely to prevent cardiac
arrhythmias.
5. A 58-year-old female client presents with shortness of breath, orthopnea, and
peripheral edema. A physical examination reveals jugular venous distention and
crackles in the lungs. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Left-sided heart failure
B. Right-sided heart failure
C. Biventricular heart failure
D. Pericarditis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Biventricular heart failure presents with signs of both left-sided failure (crackles,
dyspnea, orthopnea) and right-sided failure (peripheral edema, jugular venous distention).
Left-sided failure (A) presents primarily with pulmonary symptoms. Right-sided failure (B)
presents primarily with systemic congestion.
6. A 65-year-old client is prescribed warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the
following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of
this medication?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Platelet count
D. PT
Correct Answer: B
, Page 4 of 85
Rationale: INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the laboratory test used to monitor
warfarin therapy. The therapeutic INR for atrial fibrillation is typically 2.0-3.0. aPTT (A) is
used to monitor heparin. Platelet count (C) is monitored for heparin-induced
thrombocytopenia.
7. A 60-year-old male client presents with chest pain that is worse when lying flat and is
relieved by leaning forward. The nurse notes a pericardial friction rub on auscultation.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Stable angina
B. Pericarditis
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Pulmonary embolism
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pericarditis is characterized by chest pain that worsens when lying flat and is
relieved by leaning forward. A pericardial friction rub is a classic finding. Stable angina (A)
is relieved by rest. Myocardial infarction (C) presents with prolonged chest pain. Pulmonary
embolism (D) presents with sudden dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain.
8. A 70-year-old client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following
findings indicates digoxin toxicity?
A. Tachycardia
B. Visual disturbances (yellow or green halos)
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Visual disturbances, including yellow or green halos around lights, are classic
signs of digoxin toxicity. Other signs include nausea, vomiting, bradycardia, and cardiac
arrhythmias. Tachycardia (A), hyperkalemia (C), and hypertension (D) are not typical signs
of digoxin toxicity.
9. A 45-year-old female client with a family history of hyperlipidemia is started on
atorvastatin. Which of the following should the nurse include in the client education?
A. Take the medication in the morning
B. Avoid grapefruit juice
