EMS CERTIFICATION
EMT FISDAP Paramedic Entrance Exam - 200 Questions and
Answers (Verified by Expert) 2026/2027
A+
Complete Blueprint Coverage
A+ 6 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED CORE DOMAINS COVERED RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
Airway, Respiration, and Ventilation
Cardiology and Resuscitation
Trauma
Medical Emergencies
Obstetrics, Pediatrics, and Neonatology
EMS Operations and Scene Management
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
,SECTION 1: Airway, Respiration, and Ventilation Questions 1-35
Q1
A 45-year-old male is found unresponsive after a suspected opioid overdose. His respiratory rate is 6 and tidal volume is
shallow. You have opened the airway. Which next intervention is the highest priority?
A. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve-mask and supplemental oxygen
B. Insert a dual-lumen airway without ventilation first
C. Apply a non-rebreather at 15 L/min and monitor only
D. Perform immediate endotracheal intubation before any ventilation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Inadequate rate and depth require immediate assisted ventilation. Adjuncts or intubation follow once basic ventilation is established.
Q2
A patient with severe asthma is sitting upright, using accessory muscles, and can only speak in single words. Peak flow is 35
percent of predicted. Which medication delivery is most appropriate initially?
A. Nebulized albuterol with oxygen via mask or handheld nebulizer
B. Intramuscular epinephrine as the first-line agent
C. Intravenous methylprednisolone before any bronchodilator
D. Oral theophylline loading dose while preparing transport
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Nebulized beta-agonist is first-line for acute bronchospasm. Epinephrine is for anaphylaxis or refractory status; steroids take hours.
Q3
You are ventilating an apneic adult with a BVM. Chest rise is minimal and air leaks around the mask. The patient has no gag
reflex. Which action most effectively improves ventilation?
A. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and use a two-person seal technique
B. Increase rate to 30 breaths per minute to compensate
C. Switch to a laryngeal mask without repositioning
D. Remove the oxygen reservoir and squeeze harder
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
An OPA stents the tongue and two-rescuer technique improves seal. Faster rates risk hyperventilation and gastric inflation.
Q4
A high-speed MVC patient has RR 32, SpO2 88 percent, decreased left breath sounds, and tracheal deviation to the right.
Which condition requires immediate field treatment?
A. Tension pneumothorax requiring needle decompression on the left
B. Simple pneumothorax managed with high-flow oxygen only
C. Pulmonary contusion treated with PPV alone
D. Hemothorax requiring immediate needle aspiration of blood
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Tracheal deviation away from the affected side with distress indicates tension pneumothorax needing immediate decompression.
Q5
During RSI preparation for a patient with a full stomach, which medication is commonly used to blunt the ICP and sympathetic
response to laryngoscopy?
A. Lidocaine administered intravenously prior to laryngoscopy
B. High-dose atropine to dry secretions exclusively
C. Intramuscular succinylcholine without induction agent
D. Oral midazolam given five minutes before the procedure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
IV lidocaine may attenuate ICP and sympathetic surge. Atropine is for bradycardia risk; succinylcholine requires an induction agent.
EMT FISDAP Paramedic Entrance Exam - 200 Questions and Answers (Verified by Expert) 2026/2027 Page 2
,Q6
A 6-year-old in respiratory failure needs an ET tube. Using (age/4)+4, which uncuffed size is appropriate and what is the
preferred confirmation method?
A. 5.5 mm tube with continuous waveform capnography confirmation
B. 4.0 mm tube confirmed only by bilateral breath sounds
C. 7.0 mm tube confirmed by chest rise alone
D. 3.5 mm tube confirmed by pulse oximetry improvement only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Formula yields 5.5 mm. Waveform capnography is the gold-standard confirmation method.
Q7
A COPD patient on 2 L/min nasal cannula has SpO2 89 percent and is alert. Increasing to 6 L/min causes drowsiness and
rising ETCO2. Which principle explains this?
A. Removal of hypoxic drive leading to hypoventilation in some COPD patients
B. Oxygen toxicity causing acute alveolar damage within minutes
C. Nitrogen washout producing absorption atelectasis immediately
D. Direct depression of the respiratory center by high FiO2 alone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A subset of COPD patients rely on hypoxic drive; high oxygen can reduce ventilatory drive.
Q8
A conscious adult is unable to speak or cough after choking on food, clutching his throat and becoming cyanotic. Which
intervention is indicated?
A. Perform abdominal thrusts until the object is expelled or he becomes unresponsive
B. Deliver five back blows followed by five chest thrusts immediately
C. Open the airway and perform a finger sweep to extract the object
D. Place him in the recovery position and monitor for spontaneous clearance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Conscious choking adults receive abdominal thrusts. Back blows are for infants; finger sweeps are not recommended in conscious patients.
Q9
A trauma patient with suspected cervical spine injury requires airway opening. Which technique is preferred while maintaining
spinal precautions?
A. Jaw-thrust maneuver without head extension
B. Head-tilt chin-lift with full cervical extension
C. Nasopharyngeal airway insertion with forced head rotation
D. Blind digital intubation while flexing the neck
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Jaw-thrust maintains neutral cervical alignment. Head-tilt moves the spine.
Q10
While ventilating with a BVM you notice progressive abdominal distension and decreasing chest rise. Which complication is
occurring?
A. Gastric inflation; reduce tidal volume, ensure airway open, consider advanced airway
B. Tension pneumothorax; perform bilateral needle decompression
C. Pulmonary embolism; administer thrombolytics in the field
D. Cardiac tamponade; prepare for pericardiocentesis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Excessive volume or pressure forces air into the stomach. Corrective steps include lower volume and better airway position.
EMT FISDAP Paramedic Entrance Exam - 200 Questions and Answers (Verified by Expert) 2026/2027 Page 3
, Q11
An adult cardiac-arrest patient has an advanced airway in place. Which ventilation rate is appropriate during continuous
compressions?
A. 10 breaths per minute (one breath every 6 seconds)
B. 20 breaths per minute to maximize oxygenation
C. 30 breaths per minute synchronized with compressions
D. 2 breaths every 30 compressions with pauses
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
With an advanced airway, provide 10 breaths/min without interrupting compressions.
Q12
A 70-year-old with pneumonia has SpO2 84 percent, RR 28, and accessory muscle use. He has mild COPD. Which oxygen
device is most appropriate initially?
A. Nasal cannula at 2-4 L/min titrated to SpO2 88-92 percent
B. Non-rebreather at 15 L/min targeting SpO2 of 100 percent
C. Simple face mask at 10 L/min without monitoring response
D. Venturi mask fixed at 50 percent FiO2 regardless of SpO2
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Controlled oxygen aiming for 88-92 percent SpO2 is preferred in COPD.
Q13
You are preparing to suction an adult oropharynx. The patient has decreased LOC and audible secretions. Which technique is
correct?
A. Apply suction only while withdrawing the catheter, limiting each attempt to 10-15 seconds
B. Apply continuous suction while inserting the catheter to the carina
C. Suction for 30 continuous seconds to clear all secretions
D. Use the largest rigid catheter and force it past resistance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Suction on withdrawal only and limit time to avoid hypoxia.
Q14
A patient develops stridor and facial swelling after a bee sting. He can still speak with difficulty. Which medication and route is
the priority?
A. Epinephrine 0.3 mg intramuscular in the lateral thigh
B. Diphenhydramine 50 mg intravenous as the first agent
C. Albuterol nebulizer alone for the airway swelling
D. Methylprednisolone 125 mg intramuscular only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
IM epinephrine is first-line for anaphylaxis with airway involvement.
Q15
During positive-pressure ventilation of an adult, the recommended tidal volume range that produces visible chest rise while
minimizing gastric inflation is approximately which value?
A. 500-600 mL (6-7 mL/kg ideal body weight)
B. 1000-1200 mL to ensure full lung expansion
C. 200-300 mL to avoid any risk of barotrauma
D. 800-1000 mL for all adult patients regardless of size
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Guidelines recommend approximately 500-600 mL for most adults.
EMT FISDAP Paramedic Entrance Exam - 200 Questions and Answers (Verified by Expert) 2026/2027 Page 4
EMT FISDAP Paramedic Entrance Exam - 200 Questions and
Answers (Verified by Expert) 2026/2027
A+
Complete Blueprint Coverage
A+ 6 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED CORE DOMAINS COVERED RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
Airway, Respiration, and Ventilation
Cardiology and Resuscitation
Trauma
Medical Emergencies
Obstetrics, Pediatrics, and Neonatology
EMS Operations and Scene Management
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
,SECTION 1: Airway, Respiration, and Ventilation Questions 1-35
Q1
A 45-year-old male is found unresponsive after a suspected opioid overdose. His respiratory rate is 6 and tidal volume is
shallow. You have opened the airway. Which next intervention is the highest priority?
A. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve-mask and supplemental oxygen
B. Insert a dual-lumen airway without ventilation first
C. Apply a non-rebreather at 15 L/min and monitor only
D. Perform immediate endotracheal intubation before any ventilation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Inadequate rate and depth require immediate assisted ventilation. Adjuncts or intubation follow once basic ventilation is established.
Q2
A patient with severe asthma is sitting upright, using accessory muscles, and can only speak in single words. Peak flow is 35
percent of predicted. Which medication delivery is most appropriate initially?
A. Nebulized albuterol with oxygen via mask or handheld nebulizer
B. Intramuscular epinephrine as the first-line agent
C. Intravenous methylprednisolone before any bronchodilator
D. Oral theophylline loading dose while preparing transport
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Nebulized beta-agonist is first-line for acute bronchospasm. Epinephrine is for anaphylaxis or refractory status; steroids take hours.
Q3
You are ventilating an apneic adult with a BVM. Chest rise is minimal and air leaks around the mask. The patient has no gag
reflex. Which action most effectively improves ventilation?
A. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and use a two-person seal technique
B. Increase rate to 30 breaths per minute to compensate
C. Switch to a laryngeal mask without repositioning
D. Remove the oxygen reservoir and squeeze harder
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
An OPA stents the tongue and two-rescuer technique improves seal. Faster rates risk hyperventilation and gastric inflation.
Q4
A high-speed MVC patient has RR 32, SpO2 88 percent, decreased left breath sounds, and tracheal deviation to the right.
Which condition requires immediate field treatment?
A. Tension pneumothorax requiring needle decompression on the left
B. Simple pneumothorax managed with high-flow oxygen only
C. Pulmonary contusion treated with PPV alone
D. Hemothorax requiring immediate needle aspiration of blood
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Tracheal deviation away from the affected side with distress indicates tension pneumothorax needing immediate decompression.
Q5
During RSI preparation for a patient with a full stomach, which medication is commonly used to blunt the ICP and sympathetic
response to laryngoscopy?
A. Lidocaine administered intravenously prior to laryngoscopy
B. High-dose atropine to dry secretions exclusively
C. Intramuscular succinylcholine without induction agent
D. Oral midazolam given five minutes before the procedure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
IV lidocaine may attenuate ICP and sympathetic surge. Atropine is for bradycardia risk; succinylcholine requires an induction agent.
EMT FISDAP Paramedic Entrance Exam - 200 Questions and Answers (Verified by Expert) 2026/2027 Page 2
,Q6
A 6-year-old in respiratory failure needs an ET tube. Using (age/4)+4, which uncuffed size is appropriate and what is the
preferred confirmation method?
A. 5.5 mm tube with continuous waveform capnography confirmation
B. 4.0 mm tube confirmed only by bilateral breath sounds
C. 7.0 mm tube confirmed by chest rise alone
D. 3.5 mm tube confirmed by pulse oximetry improvement only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Formula yields 5.5 mm. Waveform capnography is the gold-standard confirmation method.
Q7
A COPD patient on 2 L/min nasal cannula has SpO2 89 percent and is alert. Increasing to 6 L/min causes drowsiness and
rising ETCO2. Which principle explains this?
A. Removal of hypoxic drive leading to hypoventilation in some COPD patients
B. Oxygen toxicity causing acute alveolar damage within minutes
C. Nitrogen washout producing absorption atelectasis immediately
D. Direct depression of the respiratory center by high FiO2 alone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A subset of COPD patients rely on hypoxic drive; high oxygen can reduce ventilatory drive.
Q8
A conscious adult is unable to speak or cough after choking on food, clutching his throat and becoming cyanotic. Which
intervention is indicated?
A. Perform abdominal thrusts until the object is expelled or he becomes unresponsive
B. Deliver five back blows followed by five chest thrusts immediately
C. Open the airway and perform a finger sweep to extract the object
D. Place him in the recovery position and monitor for spontaneous clearance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Conscious choking adults receive abdominal thrusts. Back blows are for infants; finger sweeps are not recommended in conscious patients.
Q9
A trauma patient with suspected cervical spine injury requires airway opening. Which technique is preferred while maintaining
spinal precautions?
A. Jaw-thrust maneuver without head extension
B. Head-tilt chin-lift with full cervical extension
C. Nasopharyngeal airway insertion with forced head rotation
D. Blind digital intubation while flexing the neck
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Jaw-thrust maintains neutral cervical alignment. Head-tilt moves the spine.
Q10
While ventilating with a BVM you notice progressive abdominal distension and decreasing chest rise. Which complication is
occurring?
A. Gastric inflation; reduce tidal volume, ensure airway open, consider advanced airway
B. Tension pneumothorax; perform bilateral needle decompression
C. Pulmonary embolism; administer thrombolytics in the field
D. Cardiac tamponade; prepare for pericardiocentesis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Excessive volume or pressure forces air into the stomach. Corrective steps include lower volume and better airway position.
EMT FISDAP Paramedic Entrance Exam - 200 Questions and Answers (Verified by Expert) 2026/2027 Page 3
, Q11
An adult cardiac-arrest patient has an advanced airway in place. Which ventilation rate is appropriate during continuous
compressions?
A. 10 breaths per minute (one breath every 6 seconds)
B. 20 breaths per minute to maximize oxygenation
C. 30 breaths per minute synchronized with compressions
D. 2 breaths every 30 compressions with pauses
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
With an advanced airway, provide 10 breaths/min without interrupting compressions.
Q12
A 70-year-old with pneumonia has SpO2 84 percent, RR 28, and accessory muscle use. He has mild COPD. Which oxygen
device is most appropriate initially?
A. Nasal cannula at 2-4 L/min titrated to SpO2 88-92 percent
B. Non-rebreather at 15 L/min targeting SpO2 of 100 percent
C. Simple face mask at 10 L/min without monitoring response
D. Venturi mask fixed at 50 percent FiO2 regardless of SpO2
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Controlled oxygen aiming for 88-92 percent SpO2 is preferred in COPD.
Q13
You are preparing to suction an adult oropharynx. The patient has decreased LOC and audible secretions. Which technique is
correct?
A. Apply suction only while withdrawing the catheter, limiting each attempt to 10-15 seconds
B. Apply continuous suction while inserting the catheter to the carina
C. Suction for 30 continuous seconds to clear all secretions
D. Use the largest rigid catheter and force it past resistance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Suction on withdrawal only and limit time to avoid hypoxia.
Q14
A patient develops stridor and facial swelling after a bee sting. He can still speak with difficulty. Which medication and route is
the priority?
A. Epinephrine 0.3 mg intramuscular in the lateral thigh
B. Diphenhydramine 50 mg intravenous as the first agent
C. Albuterol nebulizer alone for the airway swelling
D. Methylprednisolone 125 mg intramuscular only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
IM epinephrine is first-line for anaphylaxis with airway involvement.
Q15
During positive-pressure ventilation of an adult, the recommended tidal volume range that produces visible chest rise while
minimizing gastric inflation is approximately which value?
A. 500-600 mL (6-7 mL/kg ideal body weight)
B. 1000-1200 mL to ensure full lung expansion
C. 200-300 mL to avoid any risk of barotrauma
D. 800-1000 mL for all adult patients regardless of size
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Guidelines recommend approximately 500-600 mL for most adults.
EMT FISDAP Paramedic Entrance Exam - 200 Questions and Answers (Verified by Expert) 2026/2027 Page 4
