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NSG 3280 Exam 2 Pathophysiology for Nurses I Practice Questions & Answers 2026 – High-Yield Systems-Based Review Test Bank with Detailed Clinical Rationales (Grade A+)

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Excel on your second major assessment with this comprehensive 2026 practice test bank for NSG 3280 Pathophysiology for Nurses I Exam 2. This high-density nursing study resource targets essential core systems, focusing heavily on cardiovascular dysfunctions, alterations in respiratory ventilation, renal disruptions, and fluid-electrolyte imbalances.Every scenario-based multiple-choice question delivers verified correct answers and step-by-step clinical rationales to fortify your critical thinking and guarantee top-tier marks on exam day.

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NSG 3280 EXAM 2 – PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
FOR NURSES I - PRACTICE QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS 2026

Question 1: Which of the following mediators of inflammation is
responsible for vasodilation and increased vascular permeability during the
acute inflammatory response?

A) Prostaglandins
B) Leukotrienes
C) Histamine
D) Interferons

Correct Answer: C) Histamine

Rationale: Histamine, released from mast cells and basophils, is a primary
mediator of the acute inflammatory response. It causes arteriolar vasodilation
and increased capillary permeability, leading to redness, heat, and swelling.
Prostaglandins and leukotrienes contribute to inflammation but are
synthesized later in the response. Interferons are antiviral cytokines, not
primary mediators of acute inflammation.




Question 2: A patient with a known allergy to bee stings develops difficulty
breathing, hypotension, and urticaria after a sting. This severe reaction is
mediated by which type of hypersensitivity?

A) Type I (IgE-mediated)
B) Type II (cytotoxic)
C) Type III (immune complex-mediated)
D) Type IV (delayed-type)

,Correct Answer: A) Type I (IgE-mediated)

Rationale: Anaphylaxis from bee stings is a classic Type I hypersensitivity
reaction. It is mediated by IgE antibodies that bind to mast cells and
basophils, triggering degranulation and release of histamine and other
inflammatory mediators upon re-exposure to the allergen. Type II is cytotoxic
(e.g., hemolytic transfusion reactions). Type III is immune complex-mediated
(e.g., rheumatoid arthritis). Type IV is delayed cell-mediated (e.g., tuberculin
skin test).




Question 3: Which of the following is a function of antibodies
(immunoglobulins) in the immune response?

A) Direct phagocytosis of pathogens
B) Neutralization of toxins and viruses
C) Activation of cytotoxic T cells
D) Release of histamine

Correct Answer: B) Neutralization of toxins and viruses

Rationale: Antibodies have several functions, including neutralization of
pathogens and toxins, opsonization (marking pathogens for phagocytosis),
and activation of complement. Phagocytosis (A) is a function of neutrophils
and macrophages. Cytotoxic T cell activation (C) is mediated by antigen-
presenting cells. Histamine release (D) is a function of mast cells and
basophils.




Question 4: A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) has immune
complexes deposited in the kidneys, leading to glomerulonephritis. This is
an example of:

,A) Type I hypersensitivity
B) Type II hypersensitivity
C) Type III hypersensitivity
D) Type IV hypersensitivity

Correct Answer: C) Type III hypersensitivity

Rationale: SLE is characterized by the production of autoantibodies against
nuclear antigens. These antibodies form immune complexes that deposit in
tissues (such as the kidneys, joints, and skin), leading to complement
activation, inflammation, and tissue damage. This is a classic Type III
hypersensitivity reaction.




Question 5: Which of the following cells is responsible for the production
of antibodies?

A) Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+)
B) Helper T cells (CD4+)
C) B lymphocytes
D) Natural killer cells

Correct Answer: C) B lymphocytes

Rationale: B lymphocytes (B cells) are responsible for the production of
antibodies (immunoglobulins). When activated by antigen, B cells
differentiate into plasma cells that produce antibodies. Cytotoxic T cells (A)
directly kill infected or malignant cells. Helper T cells (B) activate other
immune cells. Natural killer cells (D) are part of the innate immune system.

, Question 6: A patient with a bacterial infection has an elevated white blood
cell count with a predominance of neutrophils. This finding is most
consistent with:

A) Viral infection
B) Parasitic infection
C) Acute bacterial infection
D) Allergic reaction

Correct Answer: C) Acute bacterial infection

Rationale: Neutrophilia (elevated neutrophils) is characteristic of acute
bacterial infections. Neutrophils are the first responders to bacterial invasion
and are highly phagocytic. Viral infections typically cause lymphocytosis.
Parasitic infections often cause eosinophilia. Allergic reactions may cause
eosinophilia.




Question 7: Which of the following is a characteristic of the innate immune
system?

A) Specificity for particular pathogens
B) Immunological memory
C) Rapid response to pathogens
D) Production of antibodies

Correct Answer: C) Rapid response to pathogens

Rationale: The innate immune system provides a rapid, non-specific response
to pathogens. It does not have specificity (A) or immunological memory (B),
which are characteristics of the adaptive immune system. Antibody
production (D) is a function of the adaptive immune system (B cells).

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