Nightingale College SCI 225 Pathophysiology Final Exam (pdf) |
2026/2027 | Proctored Q&A | Pathophysiology
1. Which organelle is responsible for ATP production through cellular
respiration?
A) Ribosome
B) Golgi apparatus
C) Mitochondrion
D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Correct Answer: Mitochondrion
Rationale: Mitochondria are the powerhouses of the cell, responsible for
generating adenosine triphosphate (ATP) through oxidative phosphorylation
and the citric acid cycle. Ribosomes synthesize proteins, the Golgi apparatus
modifies and packages proteins, and the endoplasmic reticulum is involved
in protein and lipid synthesis.
2. Liquefactive necrosis is best defined as which of the following?
A) Deposition of fibrin in blood vessels
B) Tissue that becomes firm and preserved
C) Tissue that loses structure and becomes a liquid mass
D) Death of fat cells with calcification
Correct Answer: Tissue that loses structure and becomes a liquid mass
Rationale: Liquefactive necrosis occurs when dead cells are digested by
hydrolytic enzymes, turning the tissue into a liquid mass. This is commonly
seen in brain infarcts and abscesses. Coagulative necrosis involves firm,
preserved tissue architecture, while fat necrosis involves saponification of
fatty tissue.
,3. A patient with type 1 diabetes asks the nurse what causes polyuria. What
is the nurse's best response?
A) Reduced ADH response caused by insulin deficiency
B) The loss of protein across the glomerular membrane
C) The production of ketones
D) Increased glucose in the urine
Correct Answer: Increased glucose in the urine
Rationale: Polyuria in diabetes mellitus is caused by osmotic diuresis. When
blood glucose exceeds the renal threshold, glucose spills into the urine,
drawing water with it and increasing urine output. This is a hallmark
symptom of uncontrolled diabetes.
4. Which of the following is the best definition of the term "prognosis"?
A) The precipitating factors causing an acute episode
B) The number of remissions expected during a chronic illness
C) The predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease
D) The exacerbations occurring during a chronic illness
Correct Answer: The predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a
specific disease
Rationale: Prognosis refers to the predicted or expected outcome of a
disease, including the likelihood of recovery, recurrence, or progression. It is
a key concept in understanding the natural history of disease and guiding
treatment decisions.
,5. A patient with type 1 diabetes asks the nurse what causes polyuria. What
is the nurse's best response?
A) Reduced ADH response caused by insulin deficiency
B) The loss of protein across the glomerular membrane
C) The production of ketones
D) Increased glucose in the urine
Correct Answer: Increased glucose in the urine
Rationale: Polyuria in diabetes mellitus is caused by osmotic diuresis. When
blood glucose exceeds the renal threshold, glucose spills into the urine,
drawing water with it and increasing urine output. This is a hallmark
symptom of uncontrolled diabetes.
6. A patient is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. Which type of white
blood cell would the nurse expect to be elevated in the urinalysis?
A) Lymphocytes
B) Neutrophils
C) Eosinophils
D) Basophils
Correct Answer: Neutrophils
Rationale: Neutrophils are the primary phagocytes involved in acute bacterial
infections. In a urinary tract infection, neutrophils would be elevated in the
urine, indicating an acute inflammatory response. Lymphocytes are more
associated with viral infections, eosinophils with allergic reactions, and
basophils with hypersensitivity responses.
7. The best definition of the term "prognosis" is:
, A) The predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease
B) The number of remissions to be expected during a chronic illness
C) The precipitating factors causing an acute episode
D) The exacerbations occurring during chronic illness
Correct Answer: The predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a
specific disease
Rationale: Prognosis refers to the predicted or expected outcome of a
disease, including the likelihood of recovery, recurrence, or progression. It is
a key concept in understanding the natural history of disease and guiding
treatment decisions.
8. A patient with a family history of breast cancer asks the nurse about the
role of genetics in cancer development. Which statement by the nurse is
most accurate?
A) All cancers are inherited
B) Genetic mutations in tumor suppressor genes can increase cancer risk
C) Lifestyle factors have no impact on cancer risk
D) Genetic testing is mandatory for all individuals
Correct Answer: Genetic mutations in tumor suppressor genes can increase
cancer risk
Rationale: Tumor suppressor genes normally regulate cell growth and
prevent tumor formation. Mutations in these genes, such as BRCA1 and
BRCA2, can increase the risk of cancer development. Not all cancers are
inherited, as most are sporadic and influenced by environmental and lifestyle
factors.
2026/2027 | Proctored Q&A | Pathophysiology
1. Which organelle is responsible for ATP production through cellular
respiration?
A) Ribosome
B) Golgi apparatus
C) Mitochondrion
D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Correct Answer: Mitochondrion
Rationale: Mitochondria are the powerhouses of the cell, responsible for
generating adenosine triphosphate (ATP) through oxidative phosphorylation
and the citric acid cycle. Ribosomes synthesize proteins, the Golgi apparatus
modifies and packages proteins, and the endoplasmic reticulum is involved
in protein and lipid synthesis.
2. Liquefactive necrosis is best defined as which of the following?
A) Deposition of fibrin in blood vessels
B) Tissue that becomes firm and preserved
C) Tissue that loses structure and becomes a liquid mass
D) Death of fat cells with calcification
Correct Answer: Tissue that loses structure and becomes a liquid mass
Rationale: Liquefactive necrosis occurs when dead cells are digested by
hydrolytic enzymes, turning the tissue into a liquid mass. This is commonly
seen in brain infarcts and abscesses. Coagulative necrosis involves firm,
preserved tissue architecture, while fat necrosis involves saponification of
fatty tissue.
,3. A patient with type 1 diabetes asks the nurse what causes polyuria. What
is the nurse's best response?
A) Reduced ADH response caused by insulin deficiency
B) The loss of protein across the glomerular membrane
C) The production of ketones
D) Increased glucose in the urine
Correct Answer: Increased glucose in the urine
Rationale: Polyuria in diabetes mellitus is caused by osmotic diuresis. When
blood glucose exceeds the renal threshold, glucose spills into the urine,
drawing water with it and increasing urine output. This is a hallmark
symptom of uncontrolled diabetes.
4. Which of the following is the best definition of the term "prognosis"?
A) The precipitating factors causing an acute episode
B) The number of remissions expected during a chronic illness
C) The predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease
D) The exacerbations occurring during a chronic illness
Correct Answer: The predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a
specific disease
Rationale: Prognosis refers to the predicted or expected outcome of a
disease, including the likelihood of recovery, recurrence, or progression. It is
a key concept in understanding the natural history of disease and guiding
treatment decisions.
,5. A patient with type 1 diabetes asks the nurse what causes polyuria. What
is the nurse's best response?
A) Reduced ADH response caused by insulin deficiency
B) The loss of protein across the glomerular membrane
C) The production of ketones
D) Increased glucose in the urine
Correct Answer: Increased glucose in the urine
Rationale: Polyuria in diabetes mellitus is caused by osmotic diuresis. When
blood glucose exceeds the renal threshold, glucose spills into the urine,
drawing water with it and increasing urine output. This is a hallmark
symptom of uncontrolled diabetes.
6. A patient is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. Which type of white
blood cell would the nurse expect to be elevated in the urinalysis?
A) Lymphocytes
B) Neutrophils
C) Eosinophils
D) Basophils
Correct Answer: Neutrophils
Rationale: Neutrophils are the primary phagocytes involved in acute bacterial
infections. In a urinary tract infection, neutrophils would be elevated in the
urine, indicating an acute inflammatory response. Lymphocytes are more
associated with viral infections, eosinophils with allergic reactions, and
basophils with hypersensitivity responses.
7. The best definition of the term "prognosis" is:
, A) The predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease
B) The number of remissions to be expected during a chronic illness
C) The precipitating factors causing an acute episode
D) The exacerbations occurring during chronic illness
Correct Answer: The predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a
specific disease
Rationale: Prognosis refers to the predicted or expected outcome of a
disease, including the likelihood of recovery, recurrence, or progression. It is
a key concept in understanding the natural history of disease and guiding
treatment decisions.
8. A patient with a family history of breast cancer asks the nurse about the
role of genetics in cancer development. Which statement by the nurse is
most accurate?
A) All cancers are inherited
B) Genetic mutations in tumor suppressor genes can increase cancer risk
C) Lifestyle factors have no impact on cancer risk
D) Genetic testing is mandatory for all individuals
Correct Answer: Genetic mutations in tumor suppressor genes can increase
cancer risk
Rationale: Tumor suppressor genes normally regulate cell growth and
prevent tumor formation. Mutations in these genes, such as BRCA1 and
BRCA2, can increase the risk of cancer development. Not all cancers are
inherited, as most are sporadic and influenced by environmental and lifestyle
factors.
