WPU NUR 6001 Exam 1 Advanced Health Assessment –
(2026/2027) Actual Questions, Verified Answers with
Rationales | Guarantee Pass
Skin, Hair, and Nails
1. Which layer of epidermis is mostly found in the skin on hands and feet?
A) Stratum corneum
B) Stratum lucidum
C) Stratum granulosum
D) Stratum germinativum
Answer: B. Stratum lucidum
Rationale: The stratum lucidum is a translucent layer found only in thick skin such
as the palms and soles. It provides additional protection in high-friction areas,
which is crucial in advanced skin assessment.
2. Most hair follicles originate in which level of the skin?
A) Epidermis
B) Subcutaneous layer
C) Adipose layer
D) Dermis
Answer: D. Dermis
Rationale: Hair follicles are anchored in the dermis where they are supplied by
blood vessels and surrounded by sebaceous glands. Recognizing dermal
structures is key when assessing wounds and inflammatory skin conditions.
3. A patient's chart mentions that their particular skin ailment is confluent.
What does this describe?
A) Morphology
B) Structure
C) Distribution
D) Turgor
Answer: C. Distribution
Rationale: "Confluent" describes how lesions merge or run together, which is a
pattern of distribution rather than lesion type. Accurate terminology about
,distribution supports precise dermatologic documentation in advanced
assessment.
4. A patient presents with red papules and areas of plaque on her skin and
irregular formations of exfoliated, keratinized cells. What is the most likely
ailment?
A) Psoriasis
B) Eczema
C) Acne
D) Discoid lupus
Answer: A. Psoriasis
Rationale: Psoriasis typically presents with erythematous plaques covered by
silvery, keratinized scales. Differentiating these from eczematous or acneiform
lesions is fundamental in adult skin assessment.
5. Hirsutism is a medical condition related to females rather than males.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A. True
Rationale: Hirsutism describes excess terminal hair growth in a male pattern in
females and is commonly associated with hyperandrogenism. Recognizing it
prompts evaluation for endocrine disorders such as PCOS.
6. Seborrheic keratosis, moles, and hemangiomas can generally appear
anywhere on a person's body.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B. False
Rationale: While these benign lesions have wide distributions, they show
predilections; for example, seborrheic keratoses are more common on trunk and
face, and some areas (like mucosa) are typically spared. Knowing usual locations
helps distinguish benign from atypical lesions.
HEENT and Neurological Assessment
7. The examiner tests cranial nerve III (oculomotor) by assessing:
A) Visual acuity (CN II)
B) Corneal reflex (CN V and VII)
,C) Facial sensation (CN V)
D) Pupillary response (constriction) and extraocular movements
Answer: D. Pupillary response and extraocular movements
Rationale: CN III innervates the medial, superior, and inferior recti, inferior
oblique, and levator palpebrae; it also provides parasympathetic innervation for
pupillary constriction.
8. A patient presents with ptosis (drooping eyelid), diplopia (double vision), and
a dilated pupil on the same side. This is consistent with:
A) Horner's syndrome
B) Trochlear (CN IV) palsy
C) Abducens (CN VI) palsy
D) Oculomotor (CN III) palsy
Answer: D. Oculomotor (CN III) palsy
Rationale: CN III palsy causes ptosis (levator palpebrae), diplopia (eye is "down
and out"), and a dilated pupil (parasympathetic fibers affected in compressive
lesions).
9. A patient has a small (miosis), reactive pupil with ptosis and anhidrosis (lack
of sweating) on the same side. This triad is called:
A) Adie's tonic pupil
B) Argyll Robertson pupil
C) Marcus Gunn pupil
D) Horner's syndrome
Answer: D. Horner's syndrome
Rationale: Horner's syndrome is characterized by miosis (pupil constriction),
ptosis (drooping eyelid), and anhidrosis (lack of sweating) on the ipsilateral (same)
side. It results from an interruption of the sympathetic nerve supply to the eye.
10. The "cup-to-disc ratio" is an important measurement for diagnosing:
A) Cataracts
B) Diabetic retinopathy
C) Macular degeneration
D) Glaucoma
Answer: D. Glaucoma
, Rationale: In glaucoma, increased intraocular pressure causes progressive
cupping of the optic disc. A cup-to-disc ratio >0.5 is suspicious for glaucoma.
11. In the Rinne test, air conduction (AC) should normally be _______ than bone
conduction (BC).
A) Shorter
B) Equal
C) Absent
D) Longer (AC > BC by about 2:1 ratio)
Answer: D. Longer (AC > BC by about 2:1 ratio)
Rationale: AC should be louder and longer than BC. Conductive loss: BC > AC
(Rinne negative). Sensorineural loss: AC > BC (normal Rinne).
12. The examiner assesses the patient's ability to swallow and speak clearly.
These functions are mediated by which cranial nerves? (Select all that apply)
A) CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
B) CN X (Vagus)
C) CN XII (Hypoglossal)
D) CN VII (Facial)
Answer: A, B, and C
Rationale: Swallowing is mediated by CN IX and X; speech articulation involves CN
XII (tongue movement). CN VII is not primarily involved in swallowing or speech
articulation.
Documentation and History Taking
13. SOAP stands for:
A) Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
B) Symptoms, Observations, Analysis, Plan
C) Subjective, Objective, Action, Prognosis
D) Symptoms, Objective, Assessment, Prescription
Answer: A. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
Rationale: SOAP is the standard documentation framework in advanced health
assessment. It organizes patient encounters from history through plan of care.
14. Which of the following is recorded in documentation as direct patient
quotes?
A) Chief complaint only
(2026/2027) Actual Questions, Verified Answers with
Rationales | Guarantee Pass
Skin, Hair, and Nails
1. Which layer of epidermis is mostly found in the skin on hands and feet?
A) Stratum corneum
B) Stratum lucidum
C) Stratum granulosum
D) Stratum germinativum
Answer: B. Stratum lucidum
Rationale: The stratum lucidum is a translucent layer found only in thick skin such
as the palms and soles. It provides additional protection in high-friction areas,
which is crucial in advanced skin assessment.
2. Most hair follicles originate in which level of the skin?
A) Epidermis
B) Subcutaneous layer
C) Adipose layer
D) Dermis
Answer: D. Dermis
Rationale: Hair follicles are anchored in the dermis where they are supplied by
blood vessels and surrounded by sebaceous glands. Recognizing dermal
structures is key when assessing wounds and inflammatory skin conditions.
3. A patient's chart mentions that their particular skin ailment is confluent.
What does this describe?
A) Morphology
B) Structure
C) Distribution
D) Turgor
Answer: C. Distribution
Rationale: "Confluent" describes how lesions merge or run together, which is a
pattern of distribution rather than lesion type. Accurate terminology about
,distribution supports precise dermatologic documentation in advanced
assessment.
4. A patient presents with red papules and areas of plaque on her skin and
irregular formations of exfoliated, keratinized cells. What is the most likely
ailment?
A) Psoriasis
B) Eczema
C) Acne
D) Discoid lupus
Answer: A. Psoriasis
Rationale: Psoriasis typically presents with erythematous plaques covered by
silvery, keratinized scales. Differentiating these from eczematous or acneiform
lesions is fundamental in adult skin assessment.
5. Hirsutism is a medical condition related to females rather than males.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A. True
Rationale: Hirsutism describes excess terminal hair growth in a male pattern in
females and is commonly associated with hyperandrogenism. Recognizing it
prompts evaluation for endocrine disorders such as PCOS.
6. Seborrheic keratosis, moles, and hemangiomas can generally appear
anywhere on a person's body.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B. False
Rationale: While these benign lesions have wide distributions, they show
predilections; for example, seborrheic keratoses are more common on trunk and
face, and some areas (like mucosa) are typically spared. Knowing usual locations
helps distinguish benign from atypical lesions.
HEENT and Neurological Assessment
7. The examiner tests cranial nerve III (oculomotor) by assessing:
A) Visual acuity (CN II)
B) Corneal reflex (CN V and VII)
,C) Facial sensation (CN V)
D) Pupillary response (constriction) and extraocular movements
Answer: D. Pupillary response and extraocular movements
Rationale: CN III innervates the medial, superior, and inferior recti, inferior
oblique, and levator palpebrae; it also provides parasympathetic innervation for
pupillary constriction.
8. A patient presents with ptosis (drooping eyelid), diplopia (double vision), and
a dilated pupil on the same side. This is consistent with:
A) Horner's syndrome
B) Trochlear (CN IV) palsy
C) Abducens (CN VI) palsy
D) Oculomotor (CN III) palsy
Answer: D. Oculomotor (CN III) palsy
Rationale: CN III palsy causes ptosis (levator palpebrae), diplopia (eye is "down
and out"), and a dilated pupil (parasympathetic fibers affected in compressive
lesions).
9. A patient has a small (miosis), reactive pupil with ptosis and anhidrosis (lack
of sweating) on the same side. This triad is called:
A) Adie's tonic pupil
B) Argyll Robertson pupil
C) Marcus Gunn pupil
D) Horner's syndrome
Answer: D. Horner's syndrome
Rationale: Horner's syndrome is characterized by miosis (pupil constriction),
ptosis (drooping eyelid), and anhidrosis (lack of sweating) on the ipsilateral (same)
side. It results from an interruption of the sympathetic nerve supply to the eye.
10. The "cup-to-disc ratio" is an important measurement for diagnosing:
A) Cataracts
B) Diabetic retinopathy
C) Macular degeneration
D) Glaucoma
Answer: D. Glaucoma
, Rationale: In glaucoma, increased intraocular pressure causes progressive
cupping of the optic disc. A cup-to-disc ratio >0.5 is suspicious for glaucoma.
11. In the Rinne test, air conduction (AC) should normally be _______ than bone
conduction (BC).
A) Shorter
B) Equal
C) Absent
D) Longer (AC > BC by about 2:1 ratio)
Answer: D. Longer (AC > BC by about 2:1 ratio)
Rationale: AC should be louder and longer than BC. Conductive loss: BC > AC
(Rinne negative). Sensorineural loss: AC > BC (normal Rinne).
12. The examiner assesses the patient's ability to swallow and speak clearly.
These functions are mediated by which cranial nerves? (Select all that apply)
A) CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
B) CN X (Vagus)
C) CN XII (Hypoglossal)
D) CN VII (Facial)
Answer: A, B, and C
Rationale: Swallowing is mediated by CN IX and X; speech articulation involves CN
XII (tongue movement). CN VII is not primarily involved in swallowing or speech
articulation.
Documentation and History Taking
13. SOAP stands for:
A) Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
B) Symptoms, Observations, Analysis, Plan
C) Subjective, Objective, Action, Prognosis
D) Symptoms, Objective, Assessment, Prescription
Answer: A. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
Rationale: SOAP is the standard documentation framework in advanced health
assessment. It organizes patient encounters from history through plan of care.
14. Which of the following is recorded in documentation as direct patient
quotes?
A) Chief complaint only
