SNSG 318 Exam 1 – Pharmacology Exam – NGN
Questions and Case Scenarios (Guarantee
Pass)
Section 1: Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics
Question 1
A nurse is teaching a patient about pharmacokinetics. Which statement by the
patient indicates understanding?
A) "This is how drugs change body functions."
B) "This is how my body absorbs, distributes, metabolizes, and excretes drugs."
C) "This refers to the study of poisons."
D) "This describes genetic differences in drug response."
Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics is defined as what the body does to the drug,
encompassing the four processes of ADME: Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism,
and Excretion. Pharmacodynamics (option A) refers to what the drug does to the
body. Toxicology (option C) is the study of poisons. Pharmacogenetics (option D)
studies genetic influences on drug response.
Question 2
A patient asks the nurse, "What is the difference between a generic drug and a
brand-name drug?" Which response is correct?
A) "Generic drugs contain different active ingredients."
B) "Generic drugs are always less effective."
C) "Generic drugs have the same active ingredient but may differ in inactive
components."
D) "Generic drugs are manufactured only in other countries."
Answer: C
,Rationale: Generic drugs are FDA-approved and contain the same active
ingredient(s), strength, dosage form, and route of administration as their brand-
name counterparts. They may differ in inactive ingredients such as fillers, binders,
or coloring agents. Generic drugs are required to be bioequivalent and are
typically less expensive, but they are not less effective.
Question 3
A drug with a half-life of 8 hours is administered. Approximately how long will it
take to reach steady state?
A) 8 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 40 hours
D) 72 hours
Answer: C
Rationale: Steady state is achieved after approximately 4–5 half-lives. With a half-
life of 8 hours, 5 × 8 = 40 hours. Steady state represents the point at which drug
elimination equals drug administration, resulting in relatively constant drug levels
in the body.
Question 4
Which organ is primarily responsible for drug metabolism?
A) Kidney
B) Liver
C) Intestine
D) Lung
Answer: B
Rationale: The liver is the primary site of drug metabolism, utilizing the hepatic
cytochrome P450 enzyme system. The kidneys (option A) are primarily
responsible for drug excretion. The intestines (option C) and lungs (option D) play
minor roles in metabolism for certain drugs but are not the primary organ.
,Question 5
A patient with severe liver disease is prescribed a medication that is extensively
metabolized by the liver. The nurse anticipates which change in drug therapy?
A) Increased drug excretion
B) Decreased drug absorption
C) Prolonged drug half-life
D) Faster onset of action
Answer: C
Rationale: Impaired hepatic metabolism prolongs the drug's half-life, increasing
the risk of toxicity. The patient may require a lower dose or less frequent dosing.
Drug excretion (option A) would be decreased, not increased. Absorption (option
B) is not directly affected by liver disease.
Question 6
Which lab values are used to assess liver function?
A) Creatinine and BUN
B) AST, ALT, and ALP
C) Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
D) WBC and Platelets
Answer: B
Rationale: AST (Aspartate transaminase), ALT (Alanine aminotransferase), and
ALP (Alkaline phosphatase) are the primary biomarkers measured to assess
hepatic function. AST and ALT are intracellular enzymes released into circulation
following hepatocellular damage. Creatinine and BUN (option A) assess renal
function. Hemoglobin and Hematocrit (option C) assess blood oxygen-carrying
capacity. WBC and platelets (option D) assess infection risk and clotting function.
Question 7
, A patient is prescribed a medication that is 75% protein bound. The provider
adds a second drug that is 90% protein bound. What potential effect should the
nurse anticipate?
A) Decreased effects of the first drug
B) Decreased therapeutic range of the first drug
C) Increased effects of the first drug
D) Increased therapeutic range of the first drug
Answer: C
Rationale: The second drug can displace the first from protein binding sites,
increasing free (active) levels of the first drug. This can lead to drug toxicity. Only
unbound (free) drug is pharmacologically active. Protein-bound drug is inactive
and acts as a reservoir.
Question 8
Which route of drug administration provides 100% bioavailability?
A) Oral
B) Intramuscular
C) Subcutaneous
D) Intravenous
Answer: D
Rationale: The IV route has no absorption phase; the entire dose reaches
systemic circulation directly. Bioavailability is the proportion of administered drug
that reaches systemic circulation in active form. Oral medications (option A) are
subject to first-pass metabolism, reducing bioavailability.
Question 9
Which route of administration avoids first-pass metabolism?
A) Oral
B) Sublingual
Questions and Case Scenarios (Guarantee
Pass)
Section 1: Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics
Question 1
A nurse is teaching a patient about pharmacokinetics. Which statement by the
patient indicates understanding?
A) "This is how drugs change body functions."
B) "This is how my body absorbs, distributes, metabolizes, and excretes drugs."
C) "This refers to the study of poisons."
D) "This describes genetic differences in drug response."
Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics is defined as what the body does to the drug,
encompassing the four processes of ADME: Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism,
and Excretion. Pharmacodynamics (option A) refers to what the drug does to the
body. Toxicology (option C) is the study of poisons. Pharmacogenetics (option D)
studies genetic influences on drug response.
Question 2
A patient asks the nurse, "What is the difference between a generic drug and a
brand-name drug?" Which response is correct?
A) "Generic drugs contain different active ingredients."
B) "Generic drugs are always less effective."
C) "Generic drugs have the same active ingredient but may differ in inactive
components."
D) "Generic drugs are manufactured only in other countries."
Answer: C
,Rationale: Generic drugs are FDA-approved and contain the same active
ingredient(s), strength, dosage form, and route of administration as their brand-
name counterparts. They may differ in inactive ingredients such as fillers, binders,
or coloring agents. Generic drugs are required to be bioequivalent and are
typically less expensive, but they are not less effective.
Question 3
A drug with a half-life of 8 hours is administered. Approximately how long will it
take to reach steady state?
A) 8 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 40 hours
D) 72 hours
Answer: C
Rationale: Steady state is achieved after approximately 4–5 half-lives. With a half-
life of 8 hours, 5 × 8 = 40 hours. Steady state represents the point at which drug
elimination equals drug administration, resulting in relatively constant drug levels
in the body.
Question 4
Which organ is primarily responsible for drug metabolism?
A) Kidney
B) Liver
C) Intestine
D) Lung
Answer: B
Rationale: The liver is the primary site of drug metabolism, utilizing the hepatic
cytochrome P450 enzyme system. The kidneys (option A) are primarily
responsible for drug excretion. The intestines (option C) and lungs (option D) play
minor roles in metabolism for certain drugs but are not the primary organ.
,Question 5
A patient with severe liver disease is prescribed a medication that is extensively
metabolized by the liver. The nurse anticipates which change in drug therapy?
A) Increased drug excretion
B) Decreased drug absorption
C) Prolonged drug half-life
D) Faster onset of action
Answer: C
Rationale: Impaired hepatic metabolism prolongs the drug's half-life, increasing
the risk of toxicity. The patient may require a lower dose or less frequent dosing.
Drug excretion (option A) would be decreased, not increased. Absorption (option
B) is not directly affected by liver disease.
Question 6
Which lab values are used to assess liver function?
A) Creatinine and BUN
B) AST, ALT, and ALP
C) Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
D) WBC and Platelets
Answer: B
Rationale: AST (Aspartate transaminase), ALT (Alanine aminotransferase), and
ALP (Alkaline phosphatase) are the primary biomarkers measured to assess
hepatic function. AST and ALT are intracellular enzymes released into circulation
following hepatocellular damage. Creatinine and BUN (option A) assess renal
function. Hemoglobin and Hematocrit (option C) assess blood oxygen-carrying
capacity. WBC and platelets (option D) assess infection risk and clotting function.
Question 7
, A patient is prescribed a medication that is 75% protein bound. The provider
adds a second drug that is 90% protein bound. What potential effect should the
nurse anticipate?
A) Decreased effects of the first drug
B) Decreased therapeutic range of the first drug
C) Increased effects of the first drug
D) Increased therapeutic range of the first drug
Answer: C
Rationale: The second drug can displace the first from protein binding sites,
increasing free (active) levels of the first drug. This can lead to drug toxicity. Only
unbound (free) drug is pharmacologically active. Protein-bound drug is inactive
and acts as a reservoir.
Question 8
Which route of drug administration provides 100% bioavailability?
A) Oral
B) Intramuscular
C) Subcutaneous
D) Intravenous
Answer: D
Rationale: The IV route has no absorption phase; the entire dose reaches
systemic circulation directly. Bioavailability is the proportion of administered drug
that reaches systemic circulation in active form. Oral medications (option A) are
subject to first-pass metabolism, reducing bioavailability.
Question 9
Which route of administration avoids first-pass metabolism?
A) Oral
B) Sublingual
