NU 185 Exam 2 – Med Surg Nursing II – (2026)
Actual Questions & Answers (Galen) 100%
Guarantee Pass
1. A patient is prescribed atorvastatin. Which lab value should the nurse
monitor closely?
A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
B. Liver function tests (LFTs)
C. Serum potassium
D. White blood cell count
Answer: B
Rationale: Statins like atorvastatin can cause hepatotoxicity. Monitoring liver
enzymes (AST, ALT) is essential to detect potential liver damage early.
2. A patient on lisinopril reports swelling of the lips and tongue. What is the
priority action?
A. Reassure the patient this is a common side effect
B. Administer a dose of an antihistamine
C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately
D. Instruct the patient to take the medication with food
Answer: C
Rationale: Swelling of the lips, tongue, or face (angioedema) is a life-threatening
side effect of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril and requires immediate medical
attention.
3. When assessing a patient with suspected Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD),
which finding would the nurse expect?
A. Warm, flushed skin with brown discoloration
B. Pitting edema and present pulses
C. Cool, pale extremities with diminished pulses
D. Bounding peripheral pulses and redness
Answer: C
,Rationale: Arterial insufficiency leads to decreased blood flow, resulting in cool,
pale skin and weak or absent pulses. This is a classic sign of PAD.
4. Which statement by a patient with hypertension indicates a need for further
teaching?
A. "I will walk 30 minutes a day to help control my blood pressure."
B. "I can still smoke occasionally since my medication will lower my pressure."
C. "I will reduce my sodium intake by reading food labels."
D. "I plan to manage my stress with meditation and yoga."
Answer: B
Rationale: Smoking is a major, modifiable risk factor for hypertension and
cardiovascular disease. Medications do not eliminate the risk from smoking, and
cessation is critical.
5. What is the correct order of blood flow through the right side of the heart?
A. Right atrium → tricuspid valve → right ventricle → pulmonary valve →
pulmonary artery
B. Right atrium → mitral valve → right ventricle → aortic valve → aorta
C. Left atrium → tricuspid valve → left ventricle → pulmonary valve → pulmonary
artery
D. Left atrium → mitral valve → left ventricle → pulmonary valve → pulmonary
artery
Answer: A
Rationale: This sequence correctly describes the flow of deoxygenated blood
from the body into the right side of the heart and then to the lungs for
oxygenation.
6. A post-operative day 2 patient after hip replacement suddenly develops
pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea. What is the priority action?
A. Administer prescribed PRN pain medication
B. Assess oxygen saturation and notify the provider
C. Encourage the patient to take deep breaths
,D. Check the surgical site for bleeding
Answer: B
Rationale: This presentation is highly suspicious for a pulmonary embolism (PE), a
life-threatening emergency. The nurse must immediately assess oxygenation and
notify the provider for rapid intervention.
7. A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which electrolyte
imbalance is the priority to monitor?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss in the urine.
Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias.
8. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an SpO2 of
88%. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Apply a non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min
C. Prepare for immediate intubation
D. Encourage the patient to cough and deep breathe
Answer: B
Rationale: COPD patients rely on hypoxic drive. Oxygen should be administered
cautiously at low flow rates (1-3 L/min) to avoid suppressing their respiratory
drive.
9. A patient is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which finding would
the nurse expect?
A. Blood glucose 400 mg/dL, pH 7.30, Kussmaul respirations
B. Blood glucose 150 mg/dL, pH 7.50, shallow respirations
C. Blood glucose 300 mg/dL, pH 7.40, normal respirations
, D. Blood glucose 600 mg/dL, pH 7.10, Cheyne-Stokes respirations
Answer: A
Rationale: DKA presents with severe hyperglycemia, metabolic acidosis (low pH),
and Kussmaul respirations (deep, rapid breathing) as the body attempts to
compensate.
10. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has a potassium level of 6.5
mEq/L. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Administer oral potassium supplements
B. Prepare the patient for hemodialysis
C. Encourage a high-potassium diet
D. Restrict fluid intake to 500 mL/day
Answer: B
Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is dangerously high (hyperkalemia) and
can cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias. Hemodialysis is the most definitive treatment
for severe hyperkalemia in CKD patients.
11. A patient with chest pain is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. Which
instruction is correct?
A. Swallow the tablet whole with a full glass of water
B. Take one tablet every 5 minutes up to 3 doses, and call 911 if pain persists
C. Chew the tablet for faster absorption
D. Take one tablet daily in the morning with breakfast
Answer: B
Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin is taken at the onset of chest pain, one tablet
every 5 minutes for up to 3 doses. If pain is not relieved after the first dose, the
patient should call 911 immediately.
12. A patient with asthma is prescribed albuterol. What is the primary action of
this medication?
A. Decreases inflammation in the airways
B. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle to cause bronchodilation
Actual Questions & Answers (Galen) 100%
Guarantee Pass
1. A patient is prescribed atorvastatin. Which lab value should the nurse
monitor closely?
A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
B. Liver function tests (LFTs)
C. Serum potassium
D. White blood cell count
Answer: B
Rationale: Statins like atorvastatin can cause hepatotoxicity. Monitoring liver
enzymes (AST, ALT) is essential to detect potential liver damage early.
2. A patient on lisinopril reports swelling of the lips and tongue. What is the
priority action?
A. Reassure the patient this is a common side effect
B. Administer a dose of an antihistamine
C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately
D. Instruct the patient to take the medication with food
Answer: C
Rationale: Swelling of the lips, tongue, or face (angioedema) is a life-threatening
side effect of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril and requires immediate medical
attention.
3. When assessing a patient with suspected Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD),
which finding would the nurse expect?
A. Warm, flushed skin with brown discoloration
B. Pitting edema and present pulses
C. Cool, pale extremities with diminished pulses
D. Bounding peripheral pulses and redness
Answer: C
,Rationale: Arterial insufficiency leads to decreased blood flow, resulting in cool,
pale skin and weak or absent pulses. This is a classic sign of PAD.
4. Which statement by a patient with hypertension indicates a need for further
teaching?
A. "I will walk 30 minutes a day to help control my blood pressure."
B. "I can still smoke occasionally since my medication will lower my pressure."
C. "I will reduce my sodium intake by reading food labels."
D. "I plan to manage my stress with meditation and yoga."
Answer: B
Rationale: Smoking is a major, modifiable risk factor for hypertension and
cardiovascular disease. Medications do not eliminate the risk from smoking, and
cessation is critical.
5. What is the correct order of blood flow through the right side of the heart?
A. Right atrium → tricuspid valve → right ventricle → pulmonary valve →
pulmonary artery
B. Right atrium → mitral valve → right ventricle → aortic valve → aorta
C. Left atrium → tricuspid valve → left ventricle → pulmonary valve → pulmonary
artery
D. Left atrium → mitral valve → left ventricle → pulmonary valve → pulmonary
artery
Answer: A
Rationale: This sequence correctly describes the flow of deoxygenated blood
from the body into the right side of the heart and then to the lungs for
oxygenation.
6. A post-operative day 2 patient after hip replacement suddenly develops
pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea. What is the priority action?
A. Administer prescribed PRN pain medication
B. Assess oxygen saturation and notify the provider
C. Encourage the patient to take deep breaths
,D. Check the surgical site for bleeding
Answer: B
Rationale: This presentation is highly suspicious for a pulmonary embolism (PE), a
life-threatening emergency. The nurse must immediately assess oxygenation and
notify the provider for rapid intervention.
7. A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which electrolyte
imbalance is the priority to monitor?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss in the urine.
Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias.
8. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an SpO2 of
88%. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Apply a non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min
C. Prepare for immediate intubation
D. Encourage the patient to cough and deep breathe
Answer: B
Rationale: COPD patients rely on hypoxic drive. Oxygen should be administered
cautiously at low flow rates (1-3 L/min) to avoid suppressing their respiratory
drive.
9. A patient is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which finding would
the nurse expect?
A. Blood glucose 400 mg/dL, pH 7.30, Kussmaul respirations
B. Blood glucose 150 mg/dL, pH 7.50, shallow respirations
C. Blood glucose 300 mg/dL, pH 7.40, normal respirations
, D. Blood glucose 600 mg/dL, pH 7.10, Cheyne-Stokes respirations
Answer: A
Rationale: DKA presents with severe hyperglycemia, metabolic acidosis (low pH),
and Kussmaul respirations (deep, rapid breathing) as the body attempts to
compensate.
10. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has a potassium level of 6.5
mEq/L. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Administer oral potassium supplements
B. Prepare the patient for hemodialysis
C. Encourage a high-potassium diet
D. Restrict fluid intake to 500 mL/day
Answer: B
Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is dangerously high (hyperkalemia) and
can cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias. Hemodialysis is the most definitive treatment
for severe hyperkalemia in CKD patients.
11. A patient with chest pain is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. Which
instruction is correct?
A. Swallow the tablet whole with a full glass of water
B. Take one tablet every 5 minutes up to 3 doses, and call 911 if pain persists
C. Chew the tablet for faster absorption
D. Take one tablet daily in the morning with breakfast
Answer: B
Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin is taken at the onset of chest pain, one tablet
every 5 minutes for up to 3 doses. If pain is not relieved after the first dose, the
patient should call 911 immediately.
12. A patient with asthma is prescribed albuterol. What is the primary action of
this medication?
A. Decreases inflammation in the airways
B. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle to cause bronchodilation
