NU 170 Final Exam – Maternal-Child Nursing – (2026) Actual
Questions & Answers (Galen College of Nursing)
Newborn Assessment & Care
1. The nurse is assessing a newborn at 38 weeks gestation. Which finding would
be expected?
• A) Dense lanugo covering the back and shoulders
• B) Abundant vernix caseosa in skin folds
• C) Minimal lanugo with good muscle tone
• D) Slow, incomplete ear recoil
Answer: C) Minimal lanugo with good muscle tone
Rationale: By 38 weeks gestation, lanugo is minimal or absent, and the newborn
exhibits good muscle tone and firm, quick ear recoil. Dense lanugo and abundant
vernix are more typical of preterm infants.
2. The nurse preceptor is teaching a newly hired nurse about acrocyanosis in the
newborn. Which statement by the newly hired nurse indicates correct
understanding?
• A) "Acrocyanosis occurs when vasomotor instability is present."
• B) "Acrocyanosis is a sign of respiratory distress."
• C) "Acrocyanosis requires immediate oxygen therapy."
• D) "Acrocyanosis will worsen over the first week of life."
Answer: A) "Acrocyanosis occurs when vasomotor instability is present."
Rationale: Acrocyanosis—bluish discoloration of the hands and feet—results from
peripheral vasomotor instability and is a common, transient finding in healthy
newborns.
3. The nurse is observing a new mother suction her newborn with a bulb
syringe. Which observation requires the nurse to intervene?
• A) Suctioning the mouth before the nose
, • B) Suctioning the nose before the mouth
• C) Suctioning the mouth only after nose suctioning
• D) Inserting the bulb syringe only to the base of the tongue
Answer: B) Suctioning the nose before the mouth
Rationale: Suctioning should begin with the mouth prior to the nose to prevent
aspiration of secretions into the lungs. Suctioning the nose first can cause the
baby to gasp, potentially inhaling secretions.
4. The nurse is caring for a newborn who was delivered 10 minutes ago. Which
action should the nurse perform to prevent evaporation heat loss?
• A) Immediately place the newborn under the radiant warmer
• B) Promptly drying the amniotic fluid from the newborn
• C) Wrapping the newborn only after 30 minutes
• D) Placing the newborn on a cold surface for assessment
Answer: B) Promptly drying the amniotic fluid from the newborn
Rationale: Evaporation loss occurs when water on the skin surface evaporates,
causing heat loss. Promptly drying the newborn immediately decreases this risk.
5. The nurse is caring for a newborn who was born 30 minutes ago. Which
finding is a probable sign of respiratory distress?
• A) Periodic breathing with pauses up to 15 seconds
• B) Noisy breathing with inhalation
• C) Respiratory rate between 40-60 breaths/minute
• D) Symmetrical chest movement
Answer: B) Noisy breathing with inhalation
Rationale: Noisy breathing (stridor, grunting) indicates airway obstruction or
respiratory distress in a newborn. Periodic breathing and respiratory rates of 40-
60 breaths per minute are normal; symmetrical chest movement indicates good
effort.
,6. The nurse is performing a focused newborn assessment on a female newborn.
Which finding is consistent with a full-term gestational age?
• A) Visible labia minora
• B) Long fingers with peeling skin
• C) Slow recoil of the pinna
• D) A large amount of vernix
Answer: A) Visible labia minora
Rationale: Visible labia minora indicate a full-term female newborn. Peeling skin
and long fingers are more common in post-term infants; slow pinna recoil
suggests prematurity.
7. A neonatal nurse is assessing a 2-hour-old male newborn. The nurse notes
that the urethral meatus is not midline but is displaced on the dorsal surface
(top side) of the penis. What is the medical term for this?
• A) Undescended testicle
• B) Varicocele
• C) Hypospadias
• D) Epispadias
Answer: D) Epispadias
Rationale: Epispadias is a congenital condition where the urethral opening is on
the dorsal (top) surface of the penis.
8. Which assessment finding is consistent with a full-term newborn's foot?
• A) Creases on the heel only
• B) Creases on 2/3 of the foot
• C) No creases present
• D) Heel creases but no anterior creases
Answer: B) Creases on 2/3 of the foot
, Rationale: Sole creases covering 2/3 of the foot are a sign of full-term gestation.
Preterm infants have fewer or absent sole creases.
Newborn Conditions & Interventions
9. The nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions with parents of an infant
diagnosed with a cleft palate and awaiting surgery. Which action is the priority?
• A) Teach the parents to feed the infant with a special nipple to control
formula flow
• B) Teach parents to burp the infant less frequently to reduce distress
• C) Suggest placing the infant in a prone position after feeding
• D) Encourage the use of regular bottles before surgery
Answer: A) Teach the parents to feed the infant with a special nipple to control
formula flow
Rationale: Infants with cleft palate have difficulty creating suction, so special
nipples help control flow and decrease risk of aspiration and feeding difficulties.
10. An SGA (small for gestational age) newborn is at risk for which
complication?
• A) Hyperglycemia
• B) Polycythemia
• C) Hypocalcemia
• D) Hyperthermia
Answer: B) Polycythemia
Rationale: SGA infants are at risk for polycythemia (excess red blood cells) due to
chronic intrauterine hypoxia. They are also at risk for hypoglycemia, not
hyperglycemia.
11. What is the priority nursing management for a preterm newborn?
• A) Encourage early discharge to promote bonding
• B) Maintain oxygenation and thermal regulation
Questions & Answers (Galen College of Nursing)
Newborn Assessment & Care
1. The nurse is assessing a newborn at 38 weeks gestation. Which finding would
be expected?
• A) Dense lanugo covering the back and shoulders
• B) Abundant vernix caseosa in skin folds
• C) Minimal lanugo with good muscle tone
• D) Slow, incomplete ear recoil
Answer: C) Minimal lanugo with good muscle tone
Rationale: By 38 weeks gestation, lanugo is minimal or absent, and the newborn
exhibits good muscle tone and firm, quick ear recoil. Dense lanugo and abundant
vernix are more typical of preterm infants.
2. The nurse preceptor is teaching a newly hired nurse about acrocyanosis in the
newborn. Which statement by the newly hired nurse indicates correct
understanding?
• A) "Acrocyanosis occurs when vasomotor instability is present."
• B) "Acrocyanosis is a sign of respiratory distress."
• C) "Acrocyanosis requires immediate oxygen therapy."
• D) "Acrocyanosis will worsen over the first week of life."
Answer: A) "Acrocyanosis occurs when vasomotor instability is present."
Rationale: Acrocyanosis—bluish discoloration of the hands and feet—results from
peripheral vasomotor instability and is a common, transient finding in healthy
newborns.
3. The nurse is observing a new mother suction her newborn with a bulb
syringe. Which observation requires the nurse to intervene?
• A) Suctioning the mouth before the nose
, • B) Suctioning the nose before the mouth
• C) Suctioning the mouth only after nose suctioning
• D) Inserting the bulb syringe only to the base of the tongue
Answer: B) Suctioning the nose before the mouth
Rationale: Suctioning should begin with the mouth prior to the nose to prevent
aspiration of secretions into the lungs. Suctioning the nose first can cause the
baby to gasp, potentially inhaling secretions.
4. The nurse is caring for a newborn who was delivered 10 minutes ago. Which
action should the nurse perform to prevent evaporation heat loss?
• A) Immediately place the newborn under the radiant warmer
• B) Promptly drying the amniotic fluid from the newborn
• C) Wrapping the newborn only after 30 minutes
• D) Placing the newborn on a cold surface for assessment
Answer: B) Promptly drying the amniotic fluid from the newborn
Rationale: Evaporation loss occurs when water on the skin surface evaporates,
causing heat loss. Promptly drying the newborn immediately decreases this risk.
5. The nurse is caring for a newborn who was born 30 minutes ago. Which
finding is a probable sign of respiratory distress?
• A) Periodic breathing with pauses up to 15 seconds
• B) Noisy breathing with inhalation
• C) Respiratory rate between 40-60 breaths/minute
• D) Symmetrical chest movement
Answer: B) Noisy breathing with inhalation
Rationale: Noisy breathing (stridor, grunting) indicates airway obstruction or
respiratory distress in a newborn. Periodic breathing and respiratory rates of 40-
60 breaths per minute are normal; symmetrical chest movement indicates good
effort.
,6. The nurse is performing a focused newborn assessment on a female newborn.
Which finding is consistent with a full-term gestational age?
• A) Visible labia minora
• B) Long fingers with peeling skin
• C) Slow recoil of the pinna
• D) A large amount of vernix
Answer: A) Visible labia minora
Rationale: Visible labia minora indicate a full-term female newborn. Peeling skin
and long fingers are more common in post-term infants; slow pinna recoil
suggests prematurity.
7. A neonatal nurse is assessing a 2-hour-old male newborn. The nurse notes
that the urethral meatus is not midline but is displaced on the dorsal surface
(top side) of the penis. What is the medical term for this?
• A) Undescended testicle
• B) Varicocele
• C) Hypospadias
• D) Epispadias
Answer: D) Epispadias
Rationale: Epispadias is a congenital condition where the urethral opening is on
the dorsal (top) surface of the penis.
8. Which assessment finding is consistent with a full-term newborn's foot?
• A) Creases on the heel only
• B) Creases on 2/3 of the foot
• C) No creases present
• D) Heel creases but no anterior creases
Answer: B) Creases on 2/3 of the foot
, Rationale: Sole creases covering 2/3 of the foot are a sign of full-term gestation.
Preterm infants have fewer or absent sole creases.
Newborn Conditions & Interventions
9. The nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions with parents of an infant
diagnosed with a cleft palate and awaiting surgery. Which action is the priority?
• A) Teach the parents to feed the infant with a special nipple to control
formula flow
• B) Teach parents to burp the infant less frequently to reduce distress
• C) Suggest placing the infant in a prone position after feeding
• D) Encourage the use of regular bottles before surgery
Answer: A) Teach the parents to feed the infant with a special nipple to control
formula flow
Rationale: Infants with cleft palate have difficulty creating suction, so special
nipples help control flow and decrease risk of aspiration and feeding difficulties.
10. An SGA (small for gestational age) newborn is at risk for which
complication?
• A) Hyperglycemia
• B) Polycythemia
• C) Hypocalcemia
• D) Hyperthermia
Answer: B) Polycythemia
Rationale: SGA infants are at risk for polycythemia (excess red blood cells) due to
chronic intrauterine hypoxia. They are also at risk for hypoglycemia, not
hyperglycemia.
11. What is the priority nursing management for a preterm newborn?
• A) Encourage early discharge to promote bonding
• B) Maintain oxygenation and thermal regulation
