NSG 430 Exam 1 – Adult Health Nursing II – (2026)
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Topic 1: Palliative & End-of-Life Care
Q1: A nurse is caring for a terminally ill patient. Which statement best describes
palliative care?
• A) Care that focuses on curative treatments only
• B) Care that can be provided concurrently with curative treatment to
reduce symptom severity
• C) Care that is only appropriate when death is imminent within 6 months
• D) Care that requires the patient to forgo all life-sustaining treatments
Answer: B
• Rationale: Palliative care focuses on symptom management and quality of
life and can be provided alongside curative treatments. Hospice (not
palliative) is for patients with a prognosis of 6 months or less.
Q2: The nurse is admitting a patient to hospice care. Which criterion must the
patient meet for hospice eligibility?
• A) Diagnosis of terminal cancer only
• B) Prognosis of 6 months or less to live
• C) Must be in a hospital setting
• D) Must be pain-free
Answer: B
• Rationale: Hospice care is appropriate for patients with a life expectancy of
6 months or less. It is not limited to cancer patients and can be provided in
various settings.
,Q3: A dying patient exhibits Cheyne-Stokes respirations. What does this
indicate?
• A) Normal breathing pattern
• B) A sign of respiratory distress requiring immediate intervention
• C) An expected breathing pattern at end of life
• D) A need for chest physiotherapy
Answer: C
• Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations (cycles of deep breathing followed
by apnea) are an expected finding in the dying process and do not require
aggressive intervention.
Q4: Which integumentary change is expected in a patient nearing death?
• A) Warm, flushed skin
• B) Jaundice
• C) Mottling and cyanosis of nail beds
• D) Petechiae
Answer: C
• Rationale: Mottling and cyanosis in nail beds are common near death due
to decreased peripheral perfusion. Warm flushed skin is not typical.
Q5: A terminally ill patient with continuous severe pain should have analgesics
scheduled how?
• A) On a PRN (as needed) basis
• B) Every 4 hours only
• C) Around-the-clock (ATC) routinely
, • D) Only when the patient requests them
Answer: C
• Rationale: Around-the-clock administration provides consistent pain relief.
PRN dosing results in breakthrough pain and inadequate comfort.
Q6: The son of a dying patient states, "Mom doesn't respond when I talk to her
anymore." What is the nurse's best response?
• A) "She probably can't hear you anymore."
• B) "Withdrawal is a normal response in the dying process."
• C) "You should talk louder so she can hear you."
• D) "She is ignoring you because she is angry."
Answer: B
• Rationale: Withdrawal is a normal psychosocial response near death.
Hearing is often the last sense lost, so family should be encouraged to keep
talking.
Q7: What is brain death determined by?
• A) Absence of heartbeat and respirations
• B) Irreversible loss of all brain functions including brainstem reflexes
• C) A GCS score of 10
• D) Absence of pupil response only
Answer: B
• Rationale: Brain death is complete and irreversible loss of all brain
functions, including brainstem reflexes controlling respirations.
, Q8: The nurse is providing postmortem care. Which action should be
performed?
• A) Immediately remove all tubes and lines
• B) Close the patient's eyes and replace dentures
• C) Rush family out of the room
• D) Avoid washing the body
Answer: B
• Rationale: Postmortem care includes closing the eyes, replacing dentures,
washing and positioning the body, and allowing family privacy to say
goodbye.
Q9: A patient with a GCS of 6 requires which level of intervention?
• A) Routine neurological assessment
• B) Aggressive neuroprotective interventions
• C) Discharge to home
• D) Physical therapy only
Answer: B
• Rationale: GCS 3-8 indicates severe brain injury and coma requiring
aggressive neuroprotective interventions and intensive monitoring.
Q10: A family member asks if the dying patient can hear them. What is the
nurse's best response?
• A) "No, hearing is lost early in the dying process."
• B) "Hearing is often the last sense to be lost; continue talking."
• C) "I'm not sure, it's best to be quiet."
• D) "Only if you speak very loudly."
Actual Questions & Answers (GCU) 100% Guarantee
Pass
Topic 1: Palliative & End-of-Life Care
Q1: A nurse is caring for a terminally ill patient. Which statement best describes
palliative care?
• A) Care that focuses on curative treatments only
• B) Care that can be provided concurrently with curative treatment to
reduce symptom severity
• C) Care that is only appropriate when death is imminent within 6 months
• D) Care that requires the patient to forgo all life-sustaining treatments
Answer: B
• Rationale: Palliative care focuses on symptom management and quality of
life and can be provided alongside curative treatments. Hospice (not
palliative) is for patients with a prognosis of 6 months or less.
Q2: The nurse is admitting a patient to hospice care. Which criterion must the
patient meet for hospice eligibility?
• A) Diagnosis of terminal cancer only
• B) Prognosis of 6 months or less to live
• C) Must be in a hospital setting
• D) Must be pain-free
Answer: B
• Rationale: Hospice care is appropriate for patients with a life expectancy of
6 months or less. It is not limited to cancer patients and can be provided in
various settings.
,Q3: A dying patient exhibits Cheyne-Stokes respirations. What does this
indicate?
• A) Normal breathing pattern
• B) A sign of respiratory distress requiring immediate intervention
• C) An expected breathing pattern at end of life
• D) A need for chest physiotherapy
Answer: C
• Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations (cycles of deep breathing followed
by apnea) are an expected finding in the dying process and do not require
aggressive intervention.
Q4: Which integumentary change is expected in a patient nearing death?
• A) Warm, flushed skin
• B) Jaundice
• C) Mottling and cyanosis of nail beds
• D) Petechiae
Answer: C
• Rationale: Mottling and cyanosis in nail beds are common near death due
to decreased peripheral perfusion. Warm flushed skin is not typical.
Q5: A terminally ill patient with continuous severe pain should have analgesics
scheduled how?
• A) On a PRN (as needed) basis
• B) Every 4 hours only
• C) Around-the-clock (ATC) routinely
, • D) Only when the patient requests them
Answer: C
• Rationale: Around-the-clock administration provides consistent pain relief.
PRN dosing results in breakthrough pain and inadequate comfort.
Q6: The son of a dying patient states, "Mom doesn't respond when I talk to her
anymore." What is the nurse's best response?
• A) "She probably can't hear you anymore."
• B) "Withdrawal is a normal response in the dying process."
• C) "You should talk louder so she can hear you."
• D) "She is ignoring you because she is angry."
Answer: B
• Rationale: Withdrawal is a normal psychosocial response near death.
Hearing is often the last sense lost, so family should be encouraged to keep
talking.
Q7: What is brain death determined by?
• A) Absence of heartbeat and respirations
• B) Irreversible loss of all brain functions including brainstem reflexes
• C) A GCS score of 10
• D) Absence of pupil response only
Answer: B
• Rationale: Brain death is complete and irreversible loss of all brain
functions, including brainstem reflexes controlling respirations.
, Q8: The nurse is providing postmortem care. Which action should be
performed?
• A) Immediately remove all tubes and lines
• B) Close the patient's eyes and replace dentures
• C) Rush family out of the room
• D) Avoid washing the body
Answer: B
• Rationale: Postmortem care includes closing the eyes, replacing dentures,
washing and positioning the body, and allowing family privacy to say
goodbye.
Q9: A patient with a GCS of 6 requires which level of intervention?
• A) Routine neurological assessment
• B) Aggressive neuroprotective interventions
• C) Discharge to home
• D) Physical therapy only
Answer: B
• Rationale: GCS 3-8 indicates severe brain injury and coma requiring
aggressive neuroprotective interventions and intensive monitoring.
Q10: A family member asks if the dying patient can hear them. What is the
nurse's best response?
• A) "No, hearing is lost early in the dying process."
• B) "Hearing is often the last sense to be lost; continue talking."
• C) "I'm not sure, it's best to be quiet."
• D) "Only if you speak very loudly."
