Comprehensive Exam Study Guide
Question 1.
A 65-year-old patient remarks that she just can’t believe that her breasts
sag so much. She states it must be from lack of exercise. What
explanation should the nurse offer her?
A. “This is due to a lack of muscle tone in the pectoral muscles, which can
be improved with exercise.”
B. “After menopause, the glandular and fat tissue atrophies, causing
breast size and elasticity to diminish, resulting in breasts that sag.”
C. “Sagging is primarily due to wearing improper support over the years.”
D. “This is a normal change related to weight gain that occurs with age.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After menopause, the decrease in estrogen leads to atrophy of
glandular breast tissue and loss of fat, reducing breast volume and
elasticity, which causes sagging (ptosis). This is a normal physiological
change.
Question 2.
The mother of a 10-year-old boy asks the nurse to discuss the recognition
of puberty. The nurse should reply by saying:
A. “Puberty usually begins about age fifteen.”
B. “The first sign of puberty is enlargement of the testes.”
C. “Penis size does not increase until about the age of sixteen.”
D. “The development of pubic hair precedes testicular enlargement.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In males, the first sign of puberty is testicular enlargement
(increase in testicular volume), which typically begins around age 9-14.
Pubic hair usually appears later.
,Question 3.
A patient has bilateral pitting edema of the feet. While assessing the
peripheral vasculature, the nurse’s primary focus should be:
A. The arterial function of the lower extremities.
B. The venous function of the lower extremities.
C. The neurologic function of the lower extremities.
D. The lymphatic drainage of the lower extremities.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bilateral pitting edema is most often a sign of venous
insufficiency or systemic issues like heart failure, leading to fluid
accumulation. Therefore, assessing venous function is the primary focus.
Question 4.
During examination, the nurse notes severe dryness in both eyes of a
patient. Which of the following conclusions is correct?
A. This is a normal occurrence.
B. This may indicate disease of the cerebellum.
C. This may indicate disease of the brainstem.
D. This is significant if the patient is nervous about the examination.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: While dry eyes can have many causes, severe bilateral dryness
can be associated with neurological conditions affecting the brainstem,
which controls cranial nerve function, including tear production. However,
more common causes like Sjogren’s syndrome should also be considered.
(Note: The provided text is slightly garbled, but it points to a neurological
origin.)
Question 5.
,A nurse is assessing a patient’s eye movements and notes nystagmus at
an extreme lateral gaze. What is the most appropriate interpretation?
A. This indicates a severe disease of the cerebellum.
B. This is a normal finding known as end-point nystagmus.
C. This indicates a disease of the brainstem.
D. This is always a pathological finding that requires immediate referral.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: End-point nystagmus at an extreme lateral gaze is a normal
physiological finding. Nystagmus occurring in other positions or with
severe intensity may indicate disease of the vestibular system,
cerebellum, or brainstem.
Question 6.
When performing a musculoskeletal assessment, the nurse knows the
correct approach for the examination should be:
A. Distal to proximal.
B. Proximal to distal.
C. Left to right.
D. Posterior to anterior.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct approach for a musculoskeletal assessment is
proximal to distal (e.g., assessing shoulders before elbows and wrists) to
get a general sense of function and symmetry before focusing on specific
distal joints.
Question 7.
A 43-year-old woman is at the clinic for a routine examination. She reports
that she has had a breast lump in her right breast for years. Recently, it
has begun to change in consistency and is becoming harder. She reports
that 5 years ago her physician evaluated the lump and determined that it
“was nothing to worry about.” The examination validated the presence of
, a mass in the right upper outer quadrant at 2 o’clock, approximately 5 cm
from the nipple. It is firm, mobile, nontender, with borders that are not
well defined. The nurse’s recommendation to her is:
A. “Because the lump has been there for years and is not tender, it is
likely benign and no further action is needed.”
B. “Because of the change in consistency of the lump, it should be further
evaluated by a physician.”
C. “This is a classic presentation of a fibroadenoma, which is common in
women of your age.”
D. “We will just monitor this lump and re-evaluate it in 6 months.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Any change in a pre-existing breast lump, especially an
increase in hardness or change in consistency, warrants further evaluation
to rule out malignancy. A change in a long-standing lump is a concerning
sign.
Question 8.
The nurse practitioner is examining a 3-month-old infant. While holding
the thumbs on the infant’s inner-mid-thighs and the fingers outside of the
hips, touching the greater trochanter, the nurse practitioner adducts the
legs until the thumbs touch and then abducts the legs until the infant’s
knees touch the table. The nurse practitioner does not note any
“clunking” sounds and is confident to record a:
A. Positive Ortolani’s sign.
B. Negative Ortolani’s sign.
C. Positive Barlow’s sign.
D. Negative Galeazzi’s sign.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Ortolani’s test is used to assess for developmental
dysplasia of the hip (DDH). A negative Ortolani’s sign (no clunk) indicates
that the hip is stable and not dislocated or dislocatable.