Exam 1 Review Guide: Foundations of Nursing (NUR 155) | Questions & Answers | Latest Fall 2026 - Galen.

Exam 1 Review Guide: Foundations of Nursing (NUR 155) | Questions & Answers | Latest Fall 2026. 1. A client with pneumonia has baseline vital signs: Temp 98.8°F, Pulse 74, RR 18, BP 124/76. The client's temperature suddenly spikes to 103°F. Which respiratory rate would the nurse anticipate as a response? A) 12 breaths/min B) 22 breaths/min C) 16 breaths/min D) 18 breaths/min 2. The nurse is employing verbal communication while teaching an English-speaking client. Which aspects should be included? (Select all that apply) A) Ability to share thoughts and feelings B) Hand gestures C) Eye contact D) Volume E) Voice tone F) Timing 3. Which nursing action is most effective when providing preoperative teaching to a non–English-speaking client and family? A) Obtaining a preoperative teaching brochure with pictures B) Obtaining a special-language dictionary for the session C) Securing the assistance of a professional interpreter D) Asking an English-speaking relative to interpret 4. A new RN is being educated on conducting a focused (problem-based) assessment. Which statement indicates the teaching was effective? A) "This is conducted as a follow-up examination by a provider." B) "This is focused on disease detection in a provider's office." C) "This is mostly used in a walk-in clinic or emergency department." D) "This is conducted on admission in long-term care." 5. To assess a client's apical pulse, the nurse should palpate over which anatomical landmark? A) Fifth intercostal space, left midclavicular line B) Right second intercostal space C) Over the carotid artery D) Lower left sternal border 6. What is the purpose of performing a Romberg test on a client? A) To determine the status of the vestibular apparatus in the inner ear (equilibrium) B) To check the intactness of the retinal structure C) To assess the client’s ability to ambulate D) To check for tympanic membrane intactness 7. Which of the following should the nurse document as subjective data? A) Temperature of 99.6°F B) Pedal pulses are present C) Client reports difficulty sleeping at night D) Apical pulse rate of 56 beats/min 8. Which of the following findings is considered objective data? A) Client reports taking atenolol for blood pressure B) The client has a rash on the chest and arms C) The client reports having difficulty urinating D) The client experiences migraine headaches 9. A client with pneumonia is admitted with difficulty breathing. What is the best approach for the health history interview? A) Obtain all information only from family members B) Focus only on the physical examination C) Plan short sessions with the client to obtain data D) Use the primary provider's medical history 10. When preparing the physical environment for a client interview, the nurse should: (Select all that apply) A) Make sure the client is seated comfortably at eye level with the nurse B) Provide sufficient lighting C) Set the room temperature at a comfortable level D) Arrange seating so the nurse sits behind a desk E) Ensure the distance is no more than 2 feet F) Leave physical exam equipment on the desk for readiness 11. Which transmission-based precaution is required for a client with meningitis? A) Private room with negative airflow B) Personal respiratory protection device C) Private room D) Mask worn by staff only when leaving the room 12. Which observation while a student nurse prepares a sterile field indicates a need for further teaching? A) The student touches a glove on the table, removes both, and gets a new pair B) The student dons sterile gloves without washing their hands C) The student puts on the right glove and then the left D) The student uses the inner wrapper of the gloves as a sterile field 13. Which action by nurses leaving a room requiring a gown, mask, and gloves could spread infection? A) Removing the gloves and then the gown using neck ties B) Removing the gown without rolling it from the inside out C) Taking off gloves first before removing the gown D) Washing hands after the entire procedure is complete 14. How should the nurse implement aseptic technique when assisting a client to collect a midstream urine specimen? A) Let go of the labia once cleansed to allow urination B) Cleanse the meatus with antiseptic pads using upward strokes C) Instruct the client to urinate in the container immediately after cleansing D) Ensure fingers avoid touching the inside of the collection container 15. A nurse giving a bed bath realizes an extra towel is needed. What is the most appropriate action? A) Ask a family member to get it B) Borrow the roommate's towel C) Wash hands, leave the room, and obtain the item D) Ask the unit secretary to get it 16. Which statement by a client with hepatitis B indicates an understanding of how to prevent transmission? A) "I need to be vaccinated as soon as possible." B) "My partner needs to get the vaccine." C) "It is all right to kiss my partner." D) "I will never share towels with anyone else." 17. Which action by an assistive personnel (AP) caring for a client with an indwelling catheter requires further instruction? A) Kept the drainage bag below the level of the bladder B) Used the drainage tubing port to obtain urine samples C) Allowed the drainage tubing to rest under the client's leg D) Used soap and water to cleanse the perineal area 18. What protective items must an AP use when giving a bed bath to a client on contact precautions? A) Gown and gloves B) Gown and goggles C) Gloves and goggles D) Gloves and shoe protectors 19. Which high-risk clients should be advised to receive an influenza vaccination? (Select all that apply) A) A 35-year-old RN scheduled for a pelvic exam B) A 54-year-old client with a routine diabetes check C) An 87-year-old nursing home resident D) A 43-year-old worker with symptoms of influenza E) A 47-year-old parent of a child with cystic fibrosis 20. A student understands standard and transmission-based precautions if they state the purpose is to: (Select all that apply) A) Prevent transmission from visitors to hospital staff B) Prevent transmission from providers to clients C) Prevent transmission from client to client D) Prevent transmission from clients to providers E) Prevent transmission from visitors to clients 21. What is the most appropriate infection control precaution for a wound infected with MRSA? A) Private room with negative-pressure airflow B) Mask or respiratory protection device and gown C) Private room, gown, gloves, and face shield D) Room with positive-pressure airflow 22. Which statement by a nurse regarding the use of an interpreter requires further teaching? A) "Family members should not be used due to confidentiality." B) "The use of an interpreter does not need to occur until the client requests one." C) "Using friends to interpret is a conflict of interest." D) "Interpreters decrease the risk of relaying inaccurate information." 23. What is the nurse's essential role in a health care team with multiple providers? A) Implements independent interventions and shares effectiveness B) Reads the client's record including specialist reports C) Diagnoses the client and collaborates with the team D) Facilitates communication among the team members 24. Which therapeutic communication techniques should be used for a client hospitalized with anxiety? (Select all that apply) A) Lean against the wall with arms crossed B) Help the client identify the cause of the anxiety C) Observe for expressions of helplessness D) Ask the client to identify how they feel E) Turn on the client's favorite TV show 25. Which elements are included in a focused assessment for a client with a cold and lung congestion? (Select all that apply) A) Obtaining information about respirations B) Asking about family history of illness C) Performing a musculoskeletal exam D) Obtaining the client's temperature E) Auscultating lung sounds F) Assessing peripheral pulse strength 26. Before beginning a full bed bath, which question is most important for the nurse to ask? A) "Will you be able to wash your own hair?" B) "Do you have any preferences regarding how we help you?" C) "Do you have any allergies?" D) "Are there areas you want us to spend more time on?" 27. An involuntarily hospitalized client is scheduled for ECT, but informed consent is missing. What should the nurse determine? A) The primary provider will provide the consent B) Informed consent needs to be obtained from the client C) Informed consent is not needed D) Consent should be obtained from the family 28. Which observation confirms a positive Romberg's sign during a neurological assessment? A) Dorsiflexion of the ankle and great toe with fanning B) Significant sway when standing with feet together and eyes closed C) Involuntary rhythmic twitching of the eyeballs D) Lack of sense of position when returning extended fingers 29. To test a client for accommodation, what should the nurse ask the client to do initially? A) Close one eye and read letters on a chart B) Focus on a distant object C) Raise a finger when a sound is heard D) Focus on a close object 30. Which statement is appropriate to document on an incident report for a client found on the floor? A) "The client fell out of bed." B) "The client became restless and tried to get out of bed." C) "The client was found lying on the floor." D) "The client climbed over the side rails." 31. Which of the following are accurate documentation notations? (Select all that apply) A) "The client appears to become anxious during treatments." B) "Left lower medial leg wound is 3 cm in length without redness." C) "Abdominal wound dressing is dry and intact without drainage." D) "The client seemed angry when awakened." E) "The client is resting in bed with eyes closed." 32. The nurse finds a prescribed medication dose is higher than recommended but cannot locate the provider. What is the next action? A) Hold the medication B) Administer the recommended dose C) Contact the nursing supervisor D) Administer the dose as prescribed 33. In which situations is the nurse acting as a client advocate? (Select all that apply) A) Speaking at a community education offering B) Questioning primary health care provider prescriptions C) Demonstrating mutual respect for all nurses D) Supporting a client's decision regarding health care choices E) Promoting client comfort 34. A nurse determines a restraint is needed, but the client refuses. What is the best action? A) Apply the restraint anyway B) Contact the primary health care provider (PHCP) C) Medicate the client with a sedative D) Compromise with the client 35. A client refuses a medication. Which is the most therapeutic response? A) "This will help you get better, so please take it." B) "Do you want me to call your provider and report this?" C) "You don't have to take it if you don't want to." D) "I'll come back later to see if you changed your mind." 36. How should a nurse correct an error made in a bedside flow sheet? A) Erase the error and rewrite the data B) Use white correction fluid C) Write a late entry D) Draw a line through it, initial and date, then write the correct info 37. Which notations indicate accurate nursing documentation? (Select all that apply) A) "The client appears anxious before treatments." B) "The client slept through the night." C) "Left lower medial leg wound is 3 cm without drainage." D) "Abdominal wound dressing is dry and intact." E) "The client seemed angry when awakened." 38. Which method for measuring temperature indicates a need for further teaching by the AP? A) Oral temperature for a client with a cough and nasal congestion B) Rectal temperature for a client who had nasal surgery C) Axillary temperature for a client who just had hot coffee D) Electronic neck/ear device for a diaphoretic client 39. How can a nurse best determine the presence of erythema in a dark-skinned client? A) Assess for redness around wound edges B) Palpate for increased skin temperature around the wound C) Assess for drainage from the wound D) Palpate for swelling around the edges 40. Which caregiver action identifies correct infection control during a dressing change? A) Dons gloves before removal and uses the same ones for the new dressing B) Washes hands before removal of the old dressing and before applying the clean one C) Covers mouth with hand when sneezing during the procedure D) Selects a previously opened gauze to cover the wound 41. Which precaution should the nurse institute during the assessment of a client with suspected scabies? A) Wear a mask and gloves B) Wear a gown and gloves C) Wear gloves only D) Avoid touching home furnishings 42. Which statement by a graduate nurse regarding isolation indicates a need for further review? A) "I will wear a mask when working with a client with a tracheostomy." B) "I can reuse a gown if it's not dirty, as long as I hang it inside the room." C) "A client with tuberculosis will be on airborne precautions." D) "I will remove gown and gloves and wash hands before leaving the room." 43. What findings are expected when assessing basal cell carcinoma? (Select all that apply) A) A firm nodular lesion topped with crust B) Location on a bald spot exposed to sunlight C) An irregularly shaped lesion D) A pearly papule with a central crater and waxy border E) A small papule with a dry rough scale 44. What finding is expected when assessing a stage II pressure ulcer in the sacral area? A) Exposed bone, tendon, or muscle B) Partial-thickness skin loss of the dermis C) Full-thickness skin loss D) Intact skin 45. Which interventions are appropriate for the plan of care of an unconscious client's skin? (Select all that apply) A) Provide perineal care after incontinence B) Use a bed cradle as indicated C) Add a small amount of alcohol to bath water D) Apply protective pads to heels and elbows E) Reposition every 2 hours 46. Which instruction is included for a client after skin patch testing for allergies? A) Reapply the patch if it comes off B) Return to the clinic in 2 weeks for the first reading C) All activities can be continued D) Keep the test sites dry 47. Which nursing action is incorporated for a client with psoriasis and low self-esteem? A) Keeping communications brief B) Approaching the client in a formal manner C) Listening attentively D) Avoiding looking at the affected areas 48. Which factors are responsible for erythema of the skin? (Select all that apply) A) Inflammation B) Deoxygenated hemoglobin C) Fever D) Vasodilation E) High environmental temperature 49. Which term accurately documents a purplish bruise after a fall? A) Erythema B) Ecchymosis C) Petechiae D) Purpura 50. Which statements indicate the client understands crutch safety? (Select all that apply) A) "I need to remove scatter rugs at home." B) "I can use tips even when they are wet." C) "I should not use someone else's crutches." D) "My arms need to be completely straight when using them." E) "I need to have spare crutches and tips available." 51. What fact applies to PIE, APIE, SOAP, and SOAPIE documentation? A) They are narrative charting B) They are examples of problem-oriented charting C) They are chronological D) They are forms of "charting by exception" 52. A client with a brain tumor says, "I just want to die now." What is the most appropriate response? A) "I disagree with what you just said!" B) "Honey, don't talk like that." C) "Tell me why you are saying that." D) "Don't worry, it'll be OK." 53. After an initial abdominal assessment on a client with nausea, what finding is expected? A) Very high-pitched loud rushes in two quadrants B) Low-pitched swishing in one or two quadrants C) High-pitched clicks or gurgles in all four quadrants D) Waves of loud gurgles in all four quadrants 54. When should a client who has had a hysterectomy perform breast self-examination (BSE)? A) 7 to 10 days after menses B) At ovulation time C) On a specific day of the month every month D) Just before menses begins 55. A nurse hears a grating and creaking type of sound during lung auscultation. What is this? A) Pleural friction rub B) Rhonchi C) Crackles D) Wheezes 56. Which action by a student nurse assessing tactile fremitus requires further teaching? A) Asking the client to repeat the word "ninety-nine" B) Comparing vibrations from one side to the other C) Palpating over the breast tissue to compare vibrations D) Palpating over the lung apices in the supraclavicular area 57. Where should the diaphragm of the stethoscope be placed to measure the apical pulse? A) Right ventricle B) Mitral area C) Pulmonic valve D) Right atrium 58. Where is the first heart sound (S1) heard the loudest? A) Fifth intercostal space, left midclavicular line B) Second intercostal space, left sternal border C) Fourth intercostal space, right sternal border D) Second intercostal space, right sternal border 59. A client has a BP of 184/100 mm Hg and a glucose of 122 mg/dL. Which question is asked first? A) "Are you considering trying to lose weight?" B) "Is there a history of diabetes in your family?" C) "When was the last time you had your blood pressure checked?" D) "Do you exercise regularly?" 60. Which description best defines normal bowel sounds? A) Low-pitched swishing in one or two quadrants B) Relatively high-pitched clicks or gurgles in all four quadrants C) Very high-pitched loud rushes in one or two quadrants D) Waves of loud gurgles in all four quadrants 61. A postoperative client with dark nail polish and artificial nails needs a pulse oximetry reading. What is the most appropriate action? A) Obtain the reading from another area like an earlobe B) Remove an artificial nail and obtain the reading C) Remove polish with remover and use the finger D) Take the reading from any finger anyway 62. How is a heart murmur sound described? A) A blowing or swooshing noise B) Scratchy, leathery heart noise C) Lub-dub sounds D) Abrupt, high-pitched snapping noise 63. What adventitious lung sound is expected in a client with asthma? A) Crackles B) Diminished C) Wheezes D) Stridor 64. What is the most important question for the nurse to ask before beginning a full bed bath? A) "Will you be able to wash your own hair?" B) "Are there any areas you want us to spend more time bathing?" C) "Do you have any allergies?" D) "Do you have any preferences regarding how we help you?" 65. A client with a neurological disorder has difficulty answering questions. What should the nurse do? A) Defer history and proceed with the neurological exam B) Ask a second nurse to be present C) Defer both health history and neurological exam D) Ask the client for permission for a family member to stay 66. What is the correct next step after inspecting the skin on the abdomen? A) Palpate the abdomen for size B) Percuss the right lower quadrant C) Listen to bowel sounds in all four quadrants D) Palpate the liver at the rib margin 67. Which are included in the five "Ps" to assess fracture injury? (Select all that apply) A) Paralysis distal to fracture B) Pulses proximal to fracture C) Pallor D) Pain and point of tenderness E) Sensation distal to fracture 68. Which statement indicates that teaching on focused assessments was effective? A) "This is mostly used in a walk-in clinic or emergency department." B) "This is conducted on admission in long-term care." C) "This is focused on disease detection in a provider's office." D) "This is conducted as a follow-up examination." 69. Which statement correctly identifies the priority client needs? A) Obtaining needed supplies B) Time constraints related to needs C) Actual or life-threatening concerns D) Completing care in a reasonable time frame 70. Which client should the nurse assess first? A) Radial pulse of 96 beats/min B) BP of 148/90 mm Hg C) Index finger oxygen saturation of 85% D) Tympanic temperature of 99.8°F 71. Which client has the highest priority needs? A) Oxygen saturation of 95% B) Irregular apical pulse of 120 beats per minute C) BP of 110/70 mm Hg D) Rectal temperature of 99.8°F 72. Which client should the nurse see first? A) Client requesting medication before breakfast B) Client agitated following surgery C) Client requesting to speak to the charge nurse D) Client slumped in bed with O2 saturation of 94% 73. A nurse is giving a bed bath when told another client is in pain. What is the most appropriate action? A) Finish the bath and then give the medication B) Ask the AP to tell the client medication is coming soon C) Ask the AP to find when the last dose was given D) Cover the client, raise side rails, and go give the medication 74. How is mild pitting with slight indentation and no perceptible swelling documented? A) 2+ edema B) 4+ edema C) 1+ edema D) 3+ edema 75. Which response is therapeutic to a newly diagnosed asthma client who says, "This is just another nail in my coffin"? A) "Do you think having asthma will kill you?" B) "It will be difficult to work with you if you can't view this as a challenge." C) "You seem very distressed over learning you have asthma." D) "Asthma is treatable, so let's practice with your inhaler.