Army Explosive Safety Familiarization Exam Updated Questions And
Correct Answers
SECTION I: EXPLOSIVE HAZARD CLASSIFICATION & IDENTIFICATION
Q1. According to the DoD Hazard Class/Division system, which division designation
indicates ammunition or explosives that have a mass explosion hazard?
A) Division 1.1
B) Division 1.2
C) Division 1.3
D) Division 1.4
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Division 1.1 is the DoD and UN classification for articles and substances that have a
mass explosion hazard—meaning the entire load can detonate virtually instantaneously. This is
the most dangerous hazard division within Class 1 (Explosives) and includes items such as bulk
TNT, composition explosives, and certain artillery projectiles with high-explosive fill. Divisions
1.2, 1.3, and 1.4 denote progressively less severe hazards involving fragment projection, fire,
and minor blast effects respectively.
Q2. Compatibility Group S, as defined under the DoD Ammunition and Explosives
Hazard Classification system, applies to which category of ammunition?
A) Substances that present a mass explosion hazard
B) Ammunition containing both explosives and a means of initiation, without water
activation
C) Substances or articles packed in a manner that limits any explosive effect
to the immediate vicinity
D) Smoke-generating munitions and incendiary devices
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Compatibility Group S designates substances or articles so packed or designed that
any hazardous effects from accidental functioning are confined within the package unless the
package has been degraded by fire. In that case, all blast or projection effects are limited to the
immediate vicinity. This group includes items like detonators assembled with safety features
and certain types of primers. The key distinction is that the packaging or design inherently
limits the hazard radius.
Q3. What is the primary purpose of the orange-colored placard displayed on
vehicles transporting Division 1.1 explosives?
A) To indicate the vehicle carries radioactive materials
B) To identify the UN hazard class and division for emergency responders
C) To signify the vehicle is carrying infectious substances
D) To designate the vehicle as a fuel transport unit
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The orange placard system is a critical component of the DOT/DoD hazardous
materials transportation marking requirements. For Class 1 (Explosives), the orange placard
displays the appropriate UN number and hazard class/division information, enabling
emergency responders to quickly identify the nature of the cargo and select appropriate
,response protocols. Division 1.1 placards carry the highest level of hazard awareness during
transportation incidents. This requirement is codified in 49 CFR and DoD 6055.09-M.
Q4. Under the New Explosive Hazard Symbol (NEHS) system adopted by DoD,
which symbol is used to represent materials with a mass explosion hazard?
A) An exploding bomb symbol (red octagon background)
B) A flame-over-circle symbol
C) A skull and crossbones symbol
D) A diamond-shaped exclamation mark
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The NEHS system, aligned with the Globally Harmonized System (GHS), utilizes a
red octagon with a black exploding bomb pictogram to represent materials with mass explosion
hazards (Division 1.1). This symbol standardizes hazard communication across DoD
installations and NATO partners, replacing older, inconsistent marking systems. The
flameover-circle indicates oxidizers, the skull and crossbones indicates acute toxicity, and the
exclamation mark denotes irritants—none of which apply to mass explosion hazards.
Q5. Which of the following correctly describes the difference between Hazard
Division 1.4 and Hazard Division 1.6?
A) 1.4 presents a minor explosion hazard while 1.6 presents an extremely
insensitive detonating article hazard
B) 1.4 presents a mass explosion hazard while 1.6 presents a moderate projection hazard
C) 1.6 articles are more sensitive than 1.4 articles
D) Both divisions are identical in hazard classification and differ only by
compatibility group
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Division 1.4 articles and substances present a small hazard with no significant
blast projection—effects are largely limited to the package. Division 1.6 designates extremely
insensitive articles that do not have a mass explosion hazard and demonstrate negligible
probability of accidental initiation. Division 1.6 items are the least sensitive within Class 1
explosives. Critically, Division 1.6 items must also pass rigorous insensitivity testing protocols
established under DoD 6055.09-M and UN Test Series 7 to achieve this classification.
Q6. A munition is classified as UN 0028 (Black Powder, compressed). Under the
DoD hazard classification system, to which compatibility group does black powder
most likely belong?
A) Compatibility Group A
B) Compatibility Group B
C) Compatibility Group D
D) Compatibility Group C
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Compatibility Group B contains articles containing a primary explosive substance
but not containing two or more effective independent means of initiation. Black powder,
particularly when compressed and designed for initiating charges, falls within this group
because it functions as a primary explosive—an explosive that is highly sensitive to heat,
friction, and shock and is used to initiate secondary explosives. Group A is for substances with
mass explosion risk without initiation device, Group C for propellants, and Group D for
secondary detonating substances.
Q7. When interpreting ammunition markings, what does the series of colored bands
(colored rings) on a projectile body indicate?
A) The manufacturing lot number and production date
, B) The type of explosive filler and ammunition configuration
C) The hazard division and compatibility group classification
D) The shelf-life expiration date of the munition
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Colored band markings on projectile bodies are a standardized Army/DoD system
for rapid visual identification of ammunition type and filler composition. For example, a yellow
band indicates high-explosive filler (HE), a brown band indicates low-explosive
(practice/training) fill, and an olive drab body with yellow band and black lettering indicates a
chemical fill. These color codes are established under MIL-STD-704 and enable ammunition
handlers to quickly identify munition type without reading small text, which is critical during
time-sensitive logistics operations.
Q8. A shipping container bears the marking 'UN 0349, 1.4S'. What does the 'S'
compatibility group designation indicate about this ammunition's packaging?
A) The substance is a blasting agent requiring special storage
B) The articles are packed so that any accidental explosion effect is limited to
the immediate vicinity of the package
C) The material is a smoke-generating composition with secondary fire risk
D) The articles contain sodium-based explosives requiring segregation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The 'S' in UN 0349, 1.4S denotes Compatibility Group S, which indicates substances
or articles so packed or designed that any hazardous effects from accidental functioning are
limited to the immediate vicinity of the package unless the package has been degraded by fire, in
which case all blast or projection effects remain limited. This is one of the least hazardous
compatibility groups within Division 1.4 and is commonly assigned to cartridge-actuated
devices, percussion primers, and certain signaling flares that have built-in safety features.
SECTION II: QUANTITY-DISTANCE (QD) PRINCIPLES & SITING REQUIREMENTS
Q9. The Inhabited Building Distance (IBD) is best defined as:
A) The minimum distance between an explosives storage site and the nearest public
highway
B) The minimum distance between an explosives site and buildings where
people routinely occupy or work
C) The distance required between two magazines storing the same compatibility group
D) The distance between a firing range and the nearest residential area
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IBD is defined in DoD 6055.09-M as the minimum safe distance required between a
potential explosion site (PES) and any building or structure that is routinely occupied by
personnel. This distance is calculated based on the Net Explosive Quantity (NEQ) stored and the
type of explosives involved. IBD is one of the most critical QD requirements because it protects
personnel in workplaces, barracks, administrative facilities, and other inhabited structures
from blast overpressure, fragment hazards, and thermal effects.
Q10. What is the effect of an effective barricade on QD requirements per DoD
6055.09-M?
A) A barricade eliminates all QD requirements for the protected facility
B) A barricade reduces QD distances by approximately 50% compared to
unbarricaded distances in most QD tables
C) A barricade increases QD distances to account for deflected blast waves
D) A barricade has no effect on QD calculations and is only used for visual screening
Correct Answers
SECTION I: EXPLOSIVE HAZARD CLASSIFICATION & IDENTIFICATION
Q1. According to the DoD Hazard Class/Division system, which division designation
indicates ammunition or explosives that have a mass explosion hazard?
A) Division 1.1
B) Division 1.2
C) Division 1.3
D) Division 1.4
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Division 1.1 is the DoD and UN classification for articles and substances that have a
mass explosion hazard—meaning the entire load can detonate virtually instantaneously. This is
the most dangerous hazard division within Class 1 (Explosives) and includes items such as bulk
TNT, composition explosives, and certain artillery projectiles with high-explosive fill. Divisions
1.2, 1.3, and 1.4 denote progressively less severe hazards involving fragment projection, fire,
and minor blast effects respectively.
Q2. Compatibility Group S, as defined under the DoD Ammunition and Explosives
Hazard Classification system, applies to which category of ammunition?
A) Substances that present a mass explosion hazard
B) Ammunition containing both explosives and a means of initiation, without water
activation
C) Substances or articles packed in a manner that limits any explosive effect
to the immediate vicinity
D) Smoke-generating munitions and incendiary devices
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Compatibility Group S designates substances or articles so packed or designed that
any hazardous effects from accidental functioning are confined within the package unless the
package has been degraded by fire. In that case, all blast or projection effects are limited to the
immediate vicinity. This group includes items like detonators assembled with safety features
and certain types of primers. The key distinction is that the packaging or design inherently
limits the hazard radius.
Q3. What is the primary purpose of the orange-colored placard displayed on
vehicles transporting Division 1.1 explosives?
A) To indicate the vehicle carries radioactive materials
B) To identify the UN hazard class and division for emergency responders
C) To signify the vehicle is carrying infectious substances
D) To designate the vehicle as a fuel transport unit
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The orange placard system is a critical component of the DOT/DoD hazardous
materials transportation marking requirements. For Class 1 (Explosives), the orange placard
displays the appropriate UN number and hazard class/division information, enabling
emergency responders to quickly identify the nature of the cargo and select appropriate
,response protocols. Division 1.1 placards carry the highest level of hazard awareness during
transportation incidents. This requirement is codified in 49 CFR and DoD 6055.09-M.
Q4. Under the New Explosive Hazard Symbol (NEHS) system adopted by DoD,
which symbol is used to represent materials with a mass explosion hazard?
A) An exploding bomb symbol (red octagon background)
B) A flame-over-circle symbol
C) A skull and crossbones symbol
D) A diamond-shaped exclamation mark
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The NEHS system, aligned with the Globally Harmonized System (GHS), utilizes a
red octagon with a black exploding bomb pictogram to represent materials with mass explosion
hazards (Division 1.1). This symbol standardizes hazard communication across DoD
installations and NATO partners, replacing older, inconsistent marking systems. The
flameover-circle indicates oxidizers, the skull and crossbones indicates acute toxicity, and the
exclamation mark denotes irritants—none of which apply to mass explosion hazards.
Q5. Which of the following correctly describes the difference between Hazard
Division 1.4 and Hazard Division 1.6?
A) 1.4 presents a minor explosion hazard while 1.6 presents an extremely
insensitive detonating article hazard
B) 1.4 presents a mass explosion hazard while 1.6 presents a moderate projection hazard
C) 1.6 articles are more sensitive than 1.4 articles
D) Both divisions are identical in hazard classification and differ only by
compatibility group
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Division 1.4 articles and substances present a small hazard with no significant
blast projection—effects are largely limited to the package. Division 1.6 designates extremely
insensitive articles that do not have a mass explosion hazard and demonstrate negligible
probability of accidental initiation. Division 1.6 items are the least sensitive within Class 1
explosives. Critically, Division 1.6 items must also pass rigorous insensitivity testing protocols
established under DoD 6055.09-M and UN Test Series 7 to achieve this classification.
Q6. A munition is classified as UN 0028 (Black Powder, compressed). Under the
DoD hazard classification system, to which compatibility group does black powder
most likely belong?
A) Compatibility Group A
B) Compatibility Group B
C) Compatibility Group D
D) Compatibility Group C
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Compatibility Group B contains articles containing a primary explosive substance
but not containing two or more effective independent means of initiation. Black powder,
particularly when compressed and designed for initiating charges, falls within this group
because it functions as a primary explosive—an explosive that is highly sensitive to heat,
friction, and shock and is used to initiate secondary explosives. Group A is for substances with
mass explosion risk without initiation device, Group C for propellants, and Group D for
secondary detonating substances.
Q7. When interpreting ammunition markings, what does the series of colored bands
(colored rings) on a projectile body indicate?
A) The manufacturing lot number and production date
, B) The type of explosive filler and ammunition configuration
C) The hazard division and compatibility group classification
D) The shelf-life expiration date of the munition
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Colored band markings on projectile bodies are a standardized Army/DoD system
for rapid visual identification of ammunition type and filler composition. For example, a yellow
band indicates high-explosive filler (HE), a brown band indicates low-explosive
(practice/training) fill, and an olive drab body with yellow band and black lettering indicates a
chemical fill. These color codes are established under MIL-STD-704 and enable ammunition
handlers to quickly identify munition type without reading small text, which is critical during
time-sensitive logistics operations.
Q8. A shipping container bears the marking 'UN 0349, 1.4S'. What does the 'S'
compatibility group designation indicate about this ammunition's packaging?
A) The substance is a blasting agent requiring special storage
B) The articles are packed so that any accidental explosion effect is limited to
the immediate vicinity of the package
C) The material is a smoke-generating composition with secondary fire risk
D) The articles contain sodium-based explosives requiring segregation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The 'S' in UN 0349, 1.4S denotes Compatibility Group S, which indicates substances
or articles so packed or designed that any hazardous effects from accidental functioning are
limited to the immediate vicinity of the package unless the package has been degraded by fire, in
which case all blast or projection effects remain limited. This is one of the least hazardous
compatibility groups within Division 1.4 and is commonly assigned to cartridge-actuated
devices, percussion primers, and certain signaling flares that have built-in safety features.
SECTION II: QUANTITY-DISTANCE (QD) PRINCIPLES & SITING REQUIREMENTS
Q9. The Inhabited Building Distance (IBD) is best defined as:
A) The minimum distance between an explosives storage site and the nearest public
highway
B) The minimum distance between an explosives site and buildings where
people routinely occupy or work
C) The distance required between two magazines storing the same compatibility group
D) The distance between a firing range and the nearest residential area
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IBD is defined in DoD 6055.09-M as the minimum safe distance required between a
potential explosion site (PES) and any building or structure that is routinely occupied by
personnel. This distance is calculated based on the Net Explosive Quantity (NEQ) stored and the
type of explosives involved. IBD is one of the most critical QD requirements because it protects
personnel in workplaces, barracks, administrative facilities, and other inhabited structures
from blast overpressure, fragment hazards, and thermal effects.
Q10. What is the effect of an effective barricade on QD requirements per DoD
6055.09-M?
A) A barricade eliminates all QD requirements for the protected facility
B) A barricade reduces QD distances by approximately 50% compared to
unbarricaded distances in most QD tables
C) A barricade increases QD distances to account for deflected blast waves
D) A barricade has no effect on QD calculations and is only used for visual screening
