MICP – Mobile Intensive Care Paramedic (Alaska)
Advanced Certification Review Updated 2026 |
350+ Practice Questions & Verified Answers |
Comprehensive Alaska EMS Licensing Study Guide,
Critical Care Paramedic Exam Prep, Advanced
Airway & Ventilation, ECG Interpretation,
Cardiology, Trauma Management, Emergency
Pharmacology, Critical Care Transport, Pediatric &
Obstetric Emergencies, Clinical Scenarios, Detailed
Rationales
Question 1: Which document specifically defines the authorized procedures
and medication limits for an Alaska MICP?
A. National EMS Scope of Practice Manual
B. Alaska State Medical Board Protocol Handbook
C. Federal EMS Guidebook
D. National Registry of EMTs Guidelines
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Alaska State Medical Board Protocol Handbook
Rationale: The Alaska State Medical Board Protocol Handbook outlines the exact
scope, including procedures and medication limits, for MICPs practicing in Alaska.
While the NREMT provides national standards, the state-specific protocols are legally
binding for practice in Alaska .
Question 2: In pre-hospital ethics, the principle of beneficence requires the
provider to:
A. Respect the patient's wishes above all else
B. Provide care that maximizes benefit and minimizes harm
C. Distribute resources equally among all patients
D. Avoid any intervention without explicit consent
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Provide care that maximizes benefit and minimizes
harm
Rationale: Beneficence obligates clinicians to act in the patient's best interest,
delivering beneficial care while limiting potential harm. This is distinct from respect for
autonomy (A), justice (C), and non-maleficence (D) .
Question 3: When documenting a refusal of care, which element is least
essential to include in the PCR?
A. Patient's verbal statement refusing care
B. Provider's assessment of the patient's decision-making capacity
C. The exact time the refusal occurred
D. The provider's personal opinion on the patient's condition
,CORRECT ANSWER: D. The provider's personal opinion on the patient's
condition
Rationale: Personal opinions are not required for a legally defensible refusal
documentation; objective facts such as the patient's statement, capacity assessment, and
time are mandatory. Subjective opinions can introduce bias and legal vulnerability .
Question 4: Under Alaska law, a suspected case of child abuse must be
reported to:
A. The local police department only
B. The Alaska Department of Health and Social Services within 24 hours
C. The patient's primary care physician
D. The regional medical director
CORRECT ANSWER: B. The Alaska Department of Health and Social Services
within 24 hours
Rationale: Alaska statutes require reporting suspected child abuse to the Department of
Health and Social Services promptly, typically within 24 hours. While law enforcement
may also be notified, the mandated reporter requirement specifically designates DHSS .
Question 5: Which of the following best describes a "peer review" in a QA
program?
A. Real-time supervision of field performance
B. Retrospective evaluation of patient care by colleagues
C. Public posting of performance metrics
D. Random drug testing of crew members
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Retrospective evaluation of patient care by colleagues
Rationale: Peer review involves colleagues reviewing past cases to identify strengths
and areas for improvement. This is a confidential, non-punitive process designed to
improve quality of care through constructive feedback .
Question 6: The primary goal of a safety culture in EMS is to:
A. Reduce liability costs for the agency
B. Encourage reporting of near-misses without fear of punishment
C. Increase the number of transports per shift
D. Eliminate all patient interactions
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Encourage reporting of near-misses without fear of
punishment
Rationale: A just culture encourages reporting of near-misses and errors without fear of
punishment to identify system weaknesses and improve patient safety. This is the
foundation of high-reliability organizations .
,Question 7: According to 12 AAC 40.370, which activity is NOT authorized for
a licensed MICP under physician supervision?
A. Electrocardiographic monitoring and defibrillation
B. Performing gastric suction by intubation
C. Performing non-emergency physical examinations independently
D. Administering approved agents parenterally, orally, or topically
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Performing non-emergency physical examinations
independently
Rationale: The scope of authorized activities for an MICP does not include primary
patient care, such as performing non-emergency physical examinations, unless
specifically authorized by the board. The scope is limited to emergency procedures and
those specifically authorized by the sponsoring physician .
Question 8: What is the maximum number of hours an intern can function in
Alaska without becoming licensed as an MICP?
A. 240 hours
B. 360 hours
C. 480 hours
D. 600 hours
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 480 hours
Rationale: While functioning as an intern in Alaska, a person may not perform
authorized activities for more than 480 hours, or for more than six calendar months,
without becoming licensed as a mobile intensive care paramedic by the board .
Question 9: An MICP trainee performing activities outside a hospital must be
supervised by:
A. A registered nurse
B. A physician assistant
C. A licensed MICP or physician sponsor/designee
D. An EMT-III
CORRECT ANSWER: C. A licensed MICP or physician sponsor/designee
Rationale: Activities that take place outside a hospital must be supervised by a licensed
mobile intensive care paramedic, or a physician sponsor, or the physician sponsor's
designee. In-hospital supervision may be provided by a physician, physician assistant, or
nurse .
Question 10: In the management of a blunt trauma patient with a suspected
spinal injury, what is the appropriate airway maneuver?
A. Head-tilt/chin-lift
B. Jaw-thrust maneuver
, C. Neck hyperextension
D. Oropharyngeal airway only
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Jaw-thrust maneuver
Rationale: If spinal trauma is suspected, the modified jaw-thrust maneuver should be
used to open the airway while maintaining manual in-line cervical stabilization. The
head-tilt/chin-lift is contraindicated when spinal injury is suspected .
Question 11: According to Alaska Trauma Guidelines, what is the
recommended maximum on-scene time for a trauma patient?
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 10 minutes
Rationale: Rescuers should begin transport no more than 10 minutes after their arrival
on the scene unless extenuating circumstances exist. The priority in trauma
management is rapid transport, as trauma patients cannot be treated completely in the
field .
Question 12: What is the recommended needle decompression site for an adult
with suspected tension pneumothorax?
A. 5th intercostal space, mid-axillary line
B. 2nd intercostal space, mid-clavicular line
C. 4th intercostal space, anterior axillary line
D. 1st intercostal space, parasternal line
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 2nd intercostal space, mid-clavicular line
Rationale: The classic needle decompression site is the 2nd intercostal space at the
mid-clavicular line, over the third rib. This landmark provides safe access to the pleural
space for decompression of tension pneumothorax .
Question 13: In a 12-lead ECG, ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF
most likely indicates infarction in which coronary artery?
A. Left anterior descending (LAD)
B. Right coronary artery (RCA)
C. Circumflex artery
D. Posterior descending artery
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Right coronary artery (RCA)
Rationale: Leads II, III, and aVF correspond to the inferior wall, which is typically
supplied by the right coronary artery. ST elevation in these leads is indicative of an
inferior wall myocardial infarction (STEMI) .
Advanced Certification Review Updated 2026 |
350+ Practice Questions & Verified Answers |
Comprehensive Alaska EMS Licensing Study Guide,
Critical Care Paramedic Exam Prep, Advanced
Airway & Ventilation, ECG Interpretation,
Cardiology, Trauma Management, Emergency
Pharmacology, Critical Care Transport, Pediatric &
Obstetric Emergencies, Clinical Scenarios, Detailed
Rationales
Question 1: Which document specifically defines the authorized procedures
and medication limits for an Alaska MICP?
A. National EMS Scope of Practice Manual
B. Alaska State Medical Board Protocol Handbook
C. Federal EMS Guidebook
D. National Registry of EMTs Guidelines
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Alaska State Medical Board Protocol Handbook
Rationale: The Alaska State Medical Board Protocol Handbook outlines the exact
scope, including procedures and medication limits, for MICPs practicing in Alaska.
While the NREMT provides national standards, the state-specific protocols are legally
binding for practice in Alaska .
Question 2: In pre-hospital ethics, the principle of beneficence requires the
provider to:
A. Respect the patient's wishes above all else
B. Provide care that maximizes benefit and minimizes harm
C. Distribute resources equally among all patients
D. Avoid any intervention without explicit consent
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Provide care that maximizes benefit and minimizes
harm
Rationale: Beneficence obligates clinicians to act in the patient's best interest,
delivering beneficial care while limiting potential harm. This is distinct from respect for
autonomy (A), justice (C), and non-maleficence (D) .
Question 3: When documenting a refusal of care, which element is least
essential to include in the PCR?
A. Patient's verbal statement refusing care
B. Provider's assessment of the patient's decision-making capacity
C. The exact time the refusal occurred
D. The provider's personal opinion on the patient's condition
,CORRECT ANSWER: D. The provider's personal opinion on the patient's
condition
Rationale: Personal opinions are not required for a legally defensible refusal
documentation; objective facts such as the patient's statement, capacity assessment, and
time are mandatory. Subjective opinions can introduce bias and legal vulnerability .
Question 4: Under Alaska law, a suspected case of child abuse must be
reported to:
A. The local police department only
B. The Alaska Department of Health and Social Services within 24 hours
C. The patient's primary care physician
D. The regional medical director
CORRECT ANSWER: B. The Alaska Department of Health and Social Services
within 24 hours
Rationale: Alaska statutes require reporting suspected child abuse to the Department of
Health and Social Services promptly, typically within 24 hours. While law enforcement
may also be notified, the mandated reporter requirement specifically designates DHSS .
Question 5: Which of the following best describes a "peer review" in a QA
program?
A. Real-time supervision of field performance
B. Retrospective evaluation of patient care by colleagues
C. Public posting of performance metrics
D. Random drug testing of crew members
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Retrospective evaluation of patient care by colleagues
Rationale: Peer review involves colleagues reviewing past cases to identify strengths
and areas for improvement. This is a confidential, non-punitive process designed to
improve quality of care through constructive feedback .
Question 6: The primary goal of a safety culture in EMS is to:
A. Reduce liability costs for the agency
B. Encourage reporting of near-misses without fear of punishment
C. Increase the number of transports per shift
D. Eliminate all patient interactions
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Encourage reporting of near-misses without fear of
punishment
Rationale: A just culture encourages reporting of near-misses and errors without fear of
punishment to identify system weaknesses and improve patient safety. This is the
foundation of high-reliability organizations .
,Question 7: According to 12 AAC 40.370, which activity is NOT authorized for
a licensed MICP under physician supervision?
A. Electrocardiographic monitoring and defibrillation
B. Performing gastric suction by intubation
C. Performing non-emergency physical examinations independently
D. Administering approved agents parenterally, orally, or topically
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Performing non-emergency physical examinations
independently
Rationale: The scope of authorized activities for an MICP does not include primary
patient care, such as performing non-emergency physical examinations, unless
specifically authorized by the board. The scope is limited to emergency procedures and
those specifically authorized by the sponsoring physician .
Question 8: What is the maximum number of hours an intern can function in
Alaska without becoming licensed as an MICP?
A. 240 hours
B. 360 hours
C. 480 hours
D. 600 hours
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 480 hours
Rationale: While functioning as an intern in Alaska, a person may not perform
authorized activities for more than 480 hours, or for more than six calendar months,
without becoming licensed as a mobile intensive care paramedic by the board .
Question 9: An MICP trainee performing activities outside a hospital must be
supervised by:
A. A registered nurse
B. A physician assistant
C. A licensed MICP or physician sponsor/designee
D. An EMT-III
CORRECT ANSWER: C. A licensed MICP or physician sponsor/designee
Rationale: Activities that take place outside a hospital must be supervised by a licensed
mobile intensive care paramedic, or a physician sponsor, or the physician sponsor's
designee. In-hospital supervision may be provided by a physician, physician assistant, or
nurse .
Question 10: In the management of a blunt trauma patient with a suspected
spinal injury, what is the appropriate airway maneuver?
A. Head-tilt/chin-lift
B. Jaw-thrust maneuver
, C. Neck hyperextension
D. Oropharyngeal airway only
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Jaw-thrust maneuver
Rationale: If spinal trauma is suspected, the modified jaw-thrust maneuver should be
used to open the airway while maintaining manual in-line cervical stabilization. The
head-tilt/chin-lift is contraindicated when spinal injury is suspected .
Question 11: According to Alaska Trauma Guidelines, what is the
recommended maximum on-scene time for a trauma patient?
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 10 minutes
Rationale: Rescuers should begin transport no more than 10 minutes after their arrival
on the scene unless extenuating circumstances exist. The priority in trauma
management is rapid transport, as trauma patients cannot be treated completely in the
field .
Question 12: What is the recommended needle decompression site for an adult
with suspected tension pneumothorax?
A. 5th intercostal space, mid-axillary line
B. 2nd intercostal space, mid-clavicular line
C. 4th intercostal space, anterior axillary line
D. 1st intercostal space, parasternal line
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 2nd intercostal space, mid-clavicular line
Rationale: The classic needle decompression site is the 2nd intercostal space at the
mid-clavicular line, over the third rib. This landmark provides safe access to the pleural
space for decompression of tension pneumothorax .
Question 13: In a 12-lead ECG, ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF
most likely indicates infarction in which coronary artery?
A. Left anterior descending (LAD)
B. Right coronary artery (RCA)
C. Circumflex artery
D. Posterior descending artery
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Right coronary artery (RCA)
Rationale: Leads II, III, and aVF correspond to the inferior wall, which is typically
supplied by the right coronary artery. ST elevation in these leads is indicative of an
inferior wall myocardial infarction (STEMI) .
